1. Work study is concerned with
(a) improving present method and finding
standard time
(b) motivation of workers
(c) improving production capability
(d) improving production planning and control
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
2. Basic tool in work study is
(a) graph paper
(b) process chart
(c) planning chart
(d) stop watch
(e) analytical mind.
Ans: d
3. What does symbol 'O' imply in work study
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) transport
(d) delay/temporary storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
4. What does symbol 'D' imply in work study
(a) inspection
(b) transport
(c) delay/temporary storage
(d) permanent storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
5. What does symbol 'V' employ in work study
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) delay/ temporary Storage
(d) permanent storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
6. Material handling in automobile industry is done
by
(a) overhead crane
(b) trolley
(c) belt conveyor
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
7. String diagram is used when
(a) team of workers is working at a place
(b) material handling is to be done
(c) idle time is to be reduced
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
8. Work study is most useful
(a) where production activities are involved
(b) in judging the rating of machines
(c) in improving industrial relations
(d) in judging the output of a man and improving it
(e) where men are biggest contributor to success of
a project.
Ans: a
9. Micromotion study is
(a) enlarged view of motion study
(b) analysis of one stage of motion study
(c) minute and detailed motion study
(d) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and
their analysis
(e) motion study of small components upto mirco-
seconds.
Ans: d
10. In micromotion study, therblig is described by
(a) a symbol
(b) an event
(c) an activity
(d) micro motions
(e) standard symbol and colour.
Ans: e
11. The allowed time for a job equals standard time
plus
(a) policy allowance
(b) interference allowance
(c) process allowance
(d) learning allowance
(e) unforeseen allowance.
Ans: a
12. Micromotion study involves following number of
fundamental hand motions
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 20
(e) 24
Ans: c
13. The standard time for a job is
(a) total work content
(b) base time + relaxation time
(c) total work content + basic time
(d) total work content + delay contingency
allowance
(e) total work content + relaxation time.
Ans: d
14. Work study is done with the help of
(a) process chart
(b) material handling
(c) stop watch
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
15. Scheduling gives information about
(a) when work should start and how much work
should be completed during a certain period
(b) when work should complete
(c) that how idle time can be minimized
(d) proper utilisation of machines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
16. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch
on
(a) operator's activity
(b) flow of material and in case of trouble locate
source of trouble
(c) minimising the delays
(d) making efficient despatching
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
17. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used
to
(a) determine overhead expenses
(b) provide a basis for setting piece prices or
incentive wages
(c) determine standard costs
(d) determine the capability of an operator to handle
the number of machines
(e) compare alternative methods.
Ans: a
18. Job evaluation is the method-of determining the
(a) relative worth of jobs
(b) skills required by a worker
(c) contribution of a worker
(d) contribution of a job
(e) effectiveness of various alternatives.
Ans: a
19. Micromotion study is
(a) analysis of a man-work method by using a
motion picture camera with a timing device in the
field of view
(b) motion study* observed on enhanced time
intervals
(c) motion study of a sequence of operations
conducted systematically
(d) study of man and machine conducted
simultaneously
(e) scientific, analytically procedure for
determining optimum work method.
Ans: a
20. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found
by
(a) work sampling
(b) time study
(c) method study
(d) work study
(e) ABC analysis.
Ans: a
21. TMU in method time measurement stands for
(a) time motion unit
(b) time measurement unit
(c) time movement unit
(d) technique measurement unit
(e) time method unit.
Ans: b
22. Time study is
(a) the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of
work involving human effort
(b) machine setting time
(c) time taken by workers to do a job
(d) method of fixing time for workers
(e) method of determining the personnel
Requirement.
Ans: a
23. Work sampling observations are taken on the
basis of
(a) detailed calculations
(b) convenience
(c) table of random numbers
(d) past experience
(e) fixed percentage of daily production.
Ans: c
24. One time measurement unit (TMU) in method
time measurement system equals
(a) 0.0001 minute
(b) 0.0006 minute
(c) 0.006 minute
(d) 0.001 minute
(e) 0.06 minute.
Ans: b
25. Basic motion time study gives times for basic
motions in ten thousandths of
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
26. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is
used for
(a) improving a work method
(b) improvising a work method
(c) designing a work method
(d) providing a schematic framework
(e) reducing inventory costs.
Ans: e
27. Gnatt chart provides information about the
(a) material handling
(b) proper utilisation of manpower
(c) production schedule
(d) efficient working of machine
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c
28. ABC analysis deals with
(a) analysis of process chart
(b) flow of material
(c) ordering schedule of job
(d) controlling inventory costs money
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
29. Process layout is employed for
(a) batch production
(b) continuous type of product
(c) effective utilisation of machines
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
30. For a product layout the material handling
equipment must
(a) have full flexibility
(b) employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
(c) be a general purpose type
(d) be designed as special purpose for a particular
application
(e) arranging shops according to specialization of
duties.
Ans: d
31. Travel charts provide
(a) an idea of the flow of materials at various stages
(b) a compact estimate of the handling which must
be done between various work sections
(c) the information for changes required in
rearranging material handling equipment
(d) an approximate estimate of the handling which
must be done at a particular station
(g) solution to handling techniques to achieve
most optimum^ results.
Ans: b
32. Product layout is employed for
(a) batch production
(b) continuous production
(c) effective utilization of machine
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
33. The most important objective behind plant layout
is
(a) overall simplification, safety of integration
(b) economy in space
(c) maximum travel time in plant
(d) to provide conveniently located shops
(e) to avoid any bottlenecks.
Ans: a
34. The process layout is best suited where
(a) specialisation exists
(b) machines are arranged according to sequence of
operation
(c) few number of non-standardised units are to be
produced
(d) mass production is envisaged
(e) bought out items are more.
Ans: c
35. A low unit cost can be obtained by following
(a) product layout
(b) functional layout
(c) automatic material handling equipment
(d) specialisation of operation
(e) minimum travel time plan and com¬pact layout.
Ans: a
36. Military organisation is known as
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
37. The main disadvantage of line organisation is
(a) top level executives have to do excessive work
(b) structure is rigid
(c) communication delays occur
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
38. The main advantage of line organisation is its
(a) effective command and control
(b) defined responsibilities at all levels
(c) rigid discipline in the organisation
(d) ability of quick decision at all levels
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
39. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of
working known as
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) effective organisation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
40. The salient feature of functional organisation is
(a) strict adherence to specification
(b) separation of planning and design part
(c) each individual maintains functional efficiency
(d) work is properly planned and distributed
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
41. The most popular type of organisation used for
Civil Engineering Constructions is
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) effective organisation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
42. Templates are used for
(a) a planning layout
(b) flow of material
(c) advancing a programme in automatic machines
(d) copying complicated profiles
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
43. In steel plant the most important system for
materials handling is
(a) conveyors
(b) cranes and hoists
(c) trucks
(d) locos
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
44. Routing prescribes the
(a) flow of material in the plant
(b) proper utilization of man power
(c) proper utilization of machines
(d) inspection of final product
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
45. Queuing theory deals with problems of
(a) material handling
(b) reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme
(c) better utilization of man services
(d) effective use of machines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
46. Standard time is defined as
(a) normal time + allowances
(b) normal time + idle time + allowances
(c) normal time + idle time
(d) only normal time for an operation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
47. Father of industrial engineering is
(a) Jeck Gilberth
(b) Gnatt
(c) Taylor
(d) Newton
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
48. The grouping of activities into organisational
units is called
(a) corporate plans
(b) higher level management
(c) functional authority
(d) departmentatidn
(e) company policy.
Ans: d
49. Which of the following organisation is preferred
in automobile industry
(a) functional organisation
(b) line organisation
(c) staff organisation
(d) line and staff organisations
(e) scalar organisation.
Ans: d
50. Which of the following organisations is best
suited for steel plants
(a) functional organisation
(b) line organisation
(c) staff organisation
(d) line, staff and functional organisations
(e) scalar organisation.
Ans: d
51. The wastage of material in the store is taken
into account by the following method in the
evaluation of the material issued from the store
(a) inflated system
(b) primary cost method
(c) current value method
(d) fixed price method
(e) variable price method.
Ans: a
52. Which of the following is independent of sales
forecast
(a) productivity
(b) inventory control
(c) production planning
(d) production control
(e) capital budgeting.
Ans: a
53. Gnatt charts are used for
(a) forecasting sales
(b) production schedule
(c) scheduling and routing
(d) linear programming
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
54. Inventory management consists of
(a) effective running of stores
(b) state of merchandise methods of stroing and
maintenance etc.
(c) stock control system
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
55. Gnatt charts provide information about
(a) break even point analysis
(b) production schedule
(c) material handling layout
(d) determining selling price
(e) value analysis.
Ans: b
56. Inventory control in production, planning and
control aims at
(a) achieving optimisation
(b) ensuring against market fluctuations
(c) acceptable customer service at low capital
investment in inventory
(d) discounts allowed in bulk purchase
(e) regulate supply and demand.
Ans: c
57. In inventory control, the economic order quantity
is the
(a) optimum lot size
(b) highest level of inventory
(c) lot corresponding to break-even point
(d) capability of a plant to produce
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
58. Statistical quality control techniques are based
on the theory of
(a) quality
(b) statistics
(c) probability
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
59. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute
is
(a) management
(b) labour court
(c) high court/supreme court
(d) board of directors
(e) president.
Ans: c
60. Under the Apprenticeship Act
(a) all industries have to necessarily train the
apprentices
(b) industries have to train apprentices ac-cording
to their requirement
(c) all industries employing more than 100 workers
have to recruit apprentices
(d) only industries employing more than 500
workers have to recruit apprentices
(e) all industries other than small scale industries
have to train apprentices.
Ans: d
61. Standing orders which are statutory are
applicable to
(a) all industries
(b) all process industries and thermal power plants
(c) only major industries
(d) only key industries
(e) all industries employing more than 100 workers.
Ans: e
62. Acceptance sampling is widely used in
(a) batch production
(b) job production
(c) mass production
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
63. The technique of value analysis can be applied
to
(a) complicated items only
(b) simple items only
(c) crash programmer items only
(d) cost consciousness items only
(e) any item.
Ans: e
64. The term 'value' in value engineering refers to
(a) total cost of the product
(b) selling price of the product
(c) utility of the product
(d) manufactured cost of the product
(e) depreciation value.
Ans: c
65. Value engineering aims at finding out the
(a) depreciation value of a product
(b) resale value of a product
(c) major function of the item and accomplishing the
same at least cost without change in quality
(d) break even point when machine re-quires
change
(e) selling price of an item.
Ans: c
66. In the perpetual inventory control, the material
is checked when it reaches its
(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) alarming value
(e) original value.
Ans: a
67. According to MAPI formula, the old machine
should be replaced by new one when
(a) CAM < DAM
(b) CAM > DAM
(c) CAM = DAM
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
(CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM =
Defender's Adverse minimum)
Ans: a
68. Merit Rating is the method of determining worth
of
(a) a job
(b) an individual employee
(c) a particular division in workshop
(d) machine
(e) overall quality.
Ans: b
69. Material handling and plant location is analysed
by
(a) Gnatt chart
(b) bin chart
(c) Emerson chart
(d) travel chart
(e) activity chart.
Ans: d
70. Works cost implies
(a) primary cost
(b) factory cost
(c) factory expenses
(d) primary cost + factory expenses
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
71. Motion study involves analysis of
(a) actions of operator
(b) layout of work place
(c) tooling and equipment
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
72. Standard time as compared to normal time is
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) there is no such correlation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
73. Pick up the incorrect statement about
advantages of work sampling
(a) permits a fine breakdown of activities and
delays
(b) simultaneous study of many operators may be
made by a single observer
(c) calculations are easier, method is economical
and less time consuming
(d) no time measuring devices are generally
needed
(e) as operators are not watched for long periods,
chances of obtaining misleading results are less.
Ans: a
74. In which of the following layouts, the lines need
to the balanced
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: b
75. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass
production
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: b
76. Which of the following layouts is suited to job
production
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: a
77. The employees provident fund act is applicable
to
(a) all industries
(b) all industries other than small and medium
industries
(c) volunteers
(d) the industries notified by Government
(e) all major industries.
Ans: d
78. The amount deducted from the salary of
workers towards employees provident fund is
(a) credited into reserves of company
(b) deposited in nationalised bank
(c) deposited in post office
(d) deposited in the account of worker with
employer or Reserve Bank of India
(e) deposited in the account of worker with
Provident Fund Commissioner.
Ans: e
79. The deductions for, employees provident fund
start
(a) immediately on joining the service
(b) after 60 days of joining the service
(c) after 100 days of joining the service
(d) after 240 days of joining the service
(e) after one year of joining the service.
Ans: d
80. Father of time study was
(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) H.L. Gantt
(c) F.B. Gilberfh
(d) R.M. Barnes
(e) H.B. Maynord.
Ans: a
81. Tick the odd man out
(a) Taylor
(b) Drucker
(c) McGregor
(d) Galileo
(e) Parkinson.
Ans: d
82. Current assets include
(a) manufacturing plant
(b) manufacturing plant and equipment
(c) inventories
(d) common stock held by the firm
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
83. The objective of time study is to determine the
time required to complete a job by
(a) fast worker
(b) average worker
(c) slow worker
(d) new entrant
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b
84. Job enrichment technique is applied to
(a) reduce labour monotony
(b) overcome boring and demotivating work
(c) make people happy
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
85. For ship vessel industry the following layout is
best suited
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: c
86. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are
established
(a) by time study
(b) from previous production records
(c) from one's judgement
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
87. Routing is essential in the following type of
industry
(a) assembly industry
(b) process industry
(c) job order industry
(d) mass production industry
(e) steel industry.
Ans: a
88. An optimum project schedule implies
(a) optimum utilization of men, machines and
materials
(b) lowest possible cost and shortest possible time
for project
(c) timely execution of project
(d) to produce best results under given constraints
(e) realistic execution time, minimum cost and
maximum profits.
Ans: b
89. Graphical method, simplex method, and
transportation method are concerned with
(a) break-even analysis
(b) value analysis
(c) linear programming
(d) queing theory
(e) tnaterial handling.
Ans: c
90. Which one of the following represents a group
incentive plan ?
(a) Scanlon Plan
(b) Rowan Plan
(c) Bedaux Plan
(d) Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
(e) Halsey Premium Plan.
Ans: a
91. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are
rewarded more
(a) past good workers
(b) past poor workers
(c) past average workers
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
92. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a
worker is
(a) paid as per efficiency
(b) ensured of minimum wages
(c) not paid any bonus till his efficiency
(d) never a loser
(e) induced to do more work.
Ans: b
93. 'Value' for value engineering and analysis
purposes is defined as
(a) purchase value
(b) saleable value
(c) depreciated value
(d) present worth
(e) function/cost.
Ans: e
94. Break-even analysis can be used for
(a) short run analysis
(b) long run analysis
(c) average of above two run analysis
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
95. CPM has following time estimate
(a) one time estimate
(b) two time estimate
(c) three time estimate
(d) four time estimate
(e) nil time estimate.
Ans: a
96. PERT has following time estimate
(a) one time estimate
(b) two time estimate
(c) three time estimate
(d) four time estimate
(e) nil time estimate.
Ans: c
97. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan)
, the amount of the profit which an .employee
receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/
wages, is based on :
(a) a standard rating system
(b) a merit rating system
(c) a job evaluation system
(d) his individual performance
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b
98. Which of the following incentive plansrensures a
part of the swing to the worker and rest to the
employer
(a) Emerson efficiency plan
(b) Taylor plan
(c) Halsey premium plan
(e) Gilberth plan.
Ans: c
99. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan
(a) differential piece rate system
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Emerson plan
(d) Taylor plan
(e) Halsey plan.
Ans: d
100. Which of the following plans motivates
supervisors by paying a premium on time saved by
workers
(a) Halsey plan
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Haynes plan
(d) Emerson's plan
(e) Taylor's plan.
Ans: c
101. The time required to complete a task is
established and a bonus is paid to the worker for
every hour he saves from the established time
required. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Rowan Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Taylor Differential Piece rate system
(d) Halsey Premium plan
(e) Day work plan.
Ans: d
102. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan
is that
(a) a differential piece rate system should exist
(b) minimum wages should be guaranteed
(c) provide incentive to group efficiency
performance
(d) all standards should be based on optimum
standards of production
(e) all standards should be based on time studies.
Ans: e
103. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker
receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid
till his efficiency reaches
(a) 50%
(b) 661%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%.
Ans: b
104. According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A =
actual time and S = standard time, then wages will
be
(a) HA
(b) HA + (S~A) HA
(c) HA + ^^-H
(d) HA + ^^-H
(e) HA + ^^-HA.
Ans: b
105. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then
according to Rowan plan, his maximum daily
earnings can be
(a) 2 HA
(b) 1.33 HA
(c) 1.5 HA
(d) 1.15 HA
(e) 2.5 HA.
Ans: a
106. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is
given to
(a) those items which consume money
(b) those items which are not readily available
(c) those x items which are in more demand
(d) those items which consume more money
(e) proper quality assurance program-mes.
Ans: d
107. Which one of the following represents a group
incentive plan ?
(a) Halsey Premium Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Lincoln Plan
(d) Rowan Plan
(e) Taylor Plan.
Ans: c
108. The mathematical technique for finding the best
use of limited resources in an optimum manner is
known as
(a) operation research
(b) linear programming
(c) network analysis
(d) queuing theory
(e) break-even analysis.
Ans: b
109. In order that linear programming techniques
provide valid results
(a) relations between factors must be linear
(positive)
(b) relations between factors must be linear
(negative)
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) only one factor should change at a time, others
remaining constant
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
110. The linear programming techniques can be
applied successfully to industries like
(a) iron and steel
(b) food processing
(c) oil and chemical
(d) banking
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
111. The simplex method is the basic method for
(a) value analysis
(b) operation research
(c) linear programming
(d) model analysis
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
112. The two-bin system is concerned with
(a) ordering procedure
(b) forecasting sales
(c) production planning
(d) despatching and expediting
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
113. The time required to complete a job is
established and a bonus is paid to the worker based
on the exact % of time
saved. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Dry work Plan
(b) Halsey Premium Plan
(c) Taylor Plan
(d) Bedaux Plan
(e) Rowan Plan.
Ans: e
114. Replacement studies are made on the fol-
lowing basis:
(a) annual cost method
(b) rate of return method
(c) total life average method
(d) present worth method
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: e
115. String diagram is used
(a) for checking the relative values of various
layouts
(b) when a group of workers are working at a place
(c) where processes require the operator to be
moved from one place to another
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
116. Which of the following depreciation system
ensures that the interest be charged on the cost of
machine asset every year on the book value, but
the rate of depreciation every year remains
constant
(a) sinking fund method
(b) straight line method
(c) A-B-C charging method
(d) annuity charging method
(e) diminishing balance method.
Ans: d
117. Bin card is used in
(a) administrative wing
(b) workshop
(c) foundry shop
(d) stores
(e) assembly shop.
Ans: d
118. Slack represents the difference between the
(a) latest allowable time and the normal expected
time
(b) latest allowable time and the earliest expected
time
(c) proposed allowable time and the earliest
expected time
(d) normal allowable time and the latest expected
time
(e) project initiation tune and actual starting time.
Ans: b
119. PERT and CPM are
(a) techniques to determine project status
(b) decision making techniques
(c) charts which increase aesthetic appearance of
rooms
(d) aids to determine cost implications of project
(e) aids to the decision maker.
Ans: e
120. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is
that in the former case
(a) activities and events are clearly shown
(b) early start and late finish of an activity are
clearly marked
(c) activity times are clear
(d) critical path can be easily determined
(e) inter-relationship among activities is clearly
shown.
Ans: e
121. CPM is the
(a) time oriented technique
(b) event oriented technique
(c) activity oriented technique
(d) target oriented technique
(e) work oriented technique.
Ans: c
122. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems)
include
(a) MTM (method time measurement)
(b) WFS (work factor systems)
(c) BNTS (basic motion time study)
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
123. Work study comprises following main
techniques
(a) method study and work measurement
(b) method study and time study
(c) time study and work measurement
(d) method study and job evaluation
(e) value analysis and work measurement.
Ans: a
124. Which of the following equations is not in
conformity with others
(a) organisation performance x motivation = profits
(b) knowledge x skill = ability
(c) ability x motivation = performance
(d) attitude x situation = motivation
(e) performance x resources
Ans: a
125. PERT is the
(a) time oriented technique
(b) event oriented technique
(c) activity oriented technique
(d) target oriented technique
(e) work oriented technique.
Ans: b
126. The basic difference between PERT and CPM
is that
(a) PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
(b) critical path is determined in PERT only
(c) costs are considered on CPM only and not in
PERT
(d) guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated
times in CPM
(e) PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.
Ans: d
127. PERT stands for k (fit) project evaluation and
review technique
(b) project examination and review technique
(c) project evaluation and reporting technique
(d) process execution and reporting technology
(e) project execution and results technique.
Ans: a
128. Queuing theory is used for
(a) inventory problems
(b) traffic congestion studies
(c) job-shop scheduling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
129. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting
situation can be studied and analysed
mathematically if
(a) complete details'of items in, waiting line are
known
(b) arrival and waiting times are known and can be
grouped to form a waiting line model
(c) all variables and constants are known and form
a linear equation
(d) the laws governing arrivals, service times, and
the order in which the arriving units are taken into
source are known
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
130. Queuing theory is associated with
(a) sales
(b) inspection time
(c) waiting time
(d) production time
(e) inventory.
Ans: c
131. The reasons which are basically responsible
for the formation of a queue should be that
(a) the average service rate Hess than the average
arrival rate
(b) output rate is linearly proportional to input
(c) output rate is constant and the input varies in a
random manner
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
132. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are
extremely useful in queuing problems
(a) that can't be analysed mathematically
(b) involving multistage queuing
(c) to verify mathematical results
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
133. In perpetual inventory control, the material is
checked as it reaches its
(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) middle value
(e) alarming value.
Ans: a
134. A milestone chart
(a) shows the inter dependences of various jobs
(b) depicts the delay of jobs, if any
(c) points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
135. Bar charts are suitable for
(a) minor works
(b) major works
(c) large projects
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
136. The first method invented for planning projects
was
(a) bar chart method
(b) milestone chart
(c) critical path method (CPM)
(d) programme evaluation and review technique
(PERT)
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
137. Pick up the correct statement from the
following
(a) programmer evaluation and review technique is
event oriented
(b) programmer evaluation and review technique is
not event oriented
(c) critical path method is event oriented
(d) critical.path method is not activity oriented
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
138. Pick up the correct statement from the
following
(a) critical path method is an improvement upon bar
chart method
(b) critical path method provides a realistic
approach to the daily problems
(c) critical path method avoids delays which are
very common in bar chart
(d) critical path method was invented by Morgan R.
Walker of Dupot and James E. Kelley of Remington
U.S.A in 1957
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
139. Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a
project by C.P.M.
(a) a project is divided into various activities
(b) required time for each activity is established
(c) sequence of various activities is made
according to their importance
(d) network is drawn by connecting the activities
and the events
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
140. The time of completing a project in network
analysis is given by following time of the critical
activity meeting at the finalitiode
(a) early finish
(b) early start
(c) late start
(d) late finish
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
141. The disadvantage of product layout is
(a) high initial investment for the specialized
facilities
(b) skilled labour to operate machines
(c) production time is longer, requiring more goods
in inventory
(d) high cost of inspection
(e) costly and complex production control.
Ans: a
142. Emergency rush order can be pushed more
effectively in
(a) job production
(b) automatic production
(c) continuous production
(d) intermittent production
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
143. Routing assists engineers in deciding in
advance
(a) the flow of material in the plant
(b) the methods of proper utilization of manpower
(c) the methods of proper utilization of machines
(d) the layout of factory facilities
(e) normal route of workers through the plant.
Ans: c
144. The performance of a specific task in CPM is
known as
(a) dummy
(b) event
(c) activity
(d) contract
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
145. Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following
(a) an activity of the project is denoted by an arrow
on the net work
(b) the tail of the arrow indicates the start of the
activity
(c) the head of the arrow indicates the end of,the
activity!
(d) the arrows are drawn (to scale from) left to right
(e) each activity consumes a given time
Ans: d
146. The artificial activity; which indicates that an
activity following it cannot be started unless, the
preceding activity is complete, is known as
(a) event
(b) free float
(c) artificial
(d) constraint
(e) dummy.
Ans: e
147. A dummy activity
(a) is artificially introduced
(b) is represented by a dotted line
(c) does not require any time
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
148. If E is the duration, ES and EF are die earliest
start and finish times, LS and LF are latest start
and finish times, then the following relation holds
good
(a) EF=ES+D
(b) LS=LF-D
(c) LF = LS + D
(d) D = EF-ES
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
149. The difference between the time available to do
the job and the time required to do the job, is known
as
(a) event
(b) float
(c) duration
(d) constraint
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
150. The probability distribution of activity times in
PERT follows following distribution
(a) normal
(b) binomial
(c) beta
(d) exponential
(e) Gaussian.
Ans: c
151. The probability distribution of project
completion in PERT follows following distribution
(a) normal
(b) binomial
(c) beta
(d) exponential
(e) Gaussian.
Ans: e
152. If TL is the largest allowable event occurrence
time, total activity slack (s) is equal to
(a) latest start time - earliest start time
(b) latest finish time - earliest finish time (EFT)
(c) TL-EFT
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
153. The critical activity has
(a) maximum float
(p) minimum float
(c) zero float,
(d) average float
(e) none of these.
Ans: c
154. The time by which the activity completion time
can be delayed without affecting the start of
succeeding activities, is Known as
(a) duration
(b) total float
(c) free float
(d) interfering float
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
155. The critical path of a network represents
(a) the minimum time required for completion of
project
(b) the maximum time required for completion of
project
(c) maximum cost required for completion of project
(d) minimum cost required for completion of project
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
156. Pick up the correct statement from the
following
(a) the float may be positive, zero or negative
(b) if the float is positive and the activity is delayed
by a period equal to its total float, the completion of
project in not delayed
(c) if the float of an activity is negative, delay in its
performance is bound to delay the completion of
project
(d) if the float of an activity is zero, the activity is
critical and any delay in its performance will delay
the whole project
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
157. Critical path moves along the activities having
total float of
(a) positive value
(b) negative value
(c) zero value
(d) same value
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
158. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer
(a) to concentrate his attention on critical activities
(b) to divert the resources from non-critical
advanced activities to critical activities
(c) to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the
critical activities to avoid delay of the whole project
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
159. Pick up the correct statement about
relationship between various floats
(a) free float = total float
(b) independent float = total float
(c) independent float > free float
(d) free float > total float
(e) independent float < free float.
Ans: e
160. The time which results in the least possible
direct cost of an activity is known as
(a) normal time
(b) slow time
(c) crash time
(d) standard time
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
161. The technique for establishing and maintaining
priorities among the various jobs of any project is
known as
(a) event flow scheduling technique
(b) critical ratio scheduling
(c) slotting technique for scheduling
(d) short interval scheduling
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
162. Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following. A critical ratio scheduling
(a) establishes the relative priorities among various
activities on a common basis
(b) determines the status of each activity
(c) adjusts automatically changes in activity
progress
(d) is a dynamic system
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
163. PERT is
(a) an analytic tool in concept
(b) limit up of event oriented diagrams
(c) used for research and development projects
(d) based on three time estimates for activities
linking up two events
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
164. CPMis
(a) synthesising in concepts
(b) is built of activities oriented program-mes
(c) is, based on one time eytimate
(d) is used for repetitive works
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
165. A CPM family includes
(a) CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
(b) CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
(c) MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure)
(d) CPS (Critical Path Scheduling)
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
166. PERT/CPM, techniques can be used for
following applications
(a) once through project
(b) maintenance jobs
(c) research and development
(d) all non-technical jobs
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
167. PERT analysis is based on
(a) optimistic time
(b) pessimistic time
(c) most likely time
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
168. Descripancies of bar chart techniques are
(a) consequential effects of lack in one activity on
omer
(b) consequential effects of lack in one activity on
the finish date
(c) free time available for an activity can't be
predicted
(d) effective monitoring/controlling can't be done
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
169. O on a PERT/CPM chart represents
(a) an ordinary event
(b) a significant event representing some mile-
stone
(c) an event to be transferred to other network
chart
(d) dangling event
(e) dummy event.
Ans: a
170. Pick up the correct statement. Dummy activity
on a PERT/CPM chart means, it
(a) consumes time, but no resources
(b) consumes resources but no time
(c) consumes neither time nor resources
(d) is a dangling event
(e) consumes both resources and time.
Ans: c
171. Criticalpath on PERT/CPM chart is obtained by
joining the events having
(a) maximum slack
(b) minimum slack
(c) average slack
(d) no slack
(e) judgement and experience.
Ans: b
172. Slack of various events on the critical path in
PERT/CPM chart
(a) increases continuously
(b) decreases continuously
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on various
factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
173. The assumption in PERT is
(a) a project will always be behind schedule, if left
uncorrected
(b) cost of project will always be more than the
estimated cost, if no timely corrections are taken
(c) a project can be subdivided into a set of
predictable, independent activities
(d) activities are fixed and can't be changed ,
(e) commissioning time can be changed, if activities
are behind schedule.
Ans: c
174. Activity s,lack or float of any event on a PERT/
CPM chart is represented by
(a) latest start time of succeeding event -earliest
finish time of preceding event activity time
(b) latest start time of the event - earliest start time
of the event
(c) latest finish time of event - earliest finish time of
the event
(d) anyone of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
175. The important file in making a PERT is
(a) an event can't be accomplished until activities
leading to it are completed
(b) no activity from any event can be started from
preceding event till it is completed
(c) length of arrow has nothing to do with time
(d) every activity must be completed before end
point is reached
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
176. An event is indicated on the network by
(a) a straight line
(b) a number enclosed in a circle or a square
(c) a straight line with circles at the ends
(d) a dotted line
(e) an arrow.
Ans: b
177. In a PERT chart
(a) all activities should be numbered
(b) only important activities should be numbered
(c) only critical activities are numbered
(d) only selected activities are numbered
(e) no activity is numbered.
Ans: a
178. Positive slack on a PERT indicates that project
is
(a) ahead of schedule
(b) beyond schedule
(c) as per schedule
(d) on critical path
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
179. Pessimistic time is
(a) the maximum time which an activity might
require
(b) the average time required for a job
(c) the most probable time considering all conditions
(d) the minimum time in which an activity can
possibly be accomplished
(e) the earliest finish.
Ans: a
180. In PERT analysis, critical path is obtained by
joining events having
(a) +ve slack
(b) -ve slack
(c) zero sldck
(d) dummy activities
(e) critical activities.
Ans: c
Friday, 1 May 2015
Production Technology Objective type Questions and Answers
Heat Transfer - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers List Latest Heat Transfer Questions and Answers pdf free download
Heat Transfer -
Mechanical Engineering Multiple
Choice Questions and Answers
List
1. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is
(a) kcal/kg m2 °C
(b) kcal-m/hr m2 °C
(c) kcal/hr m2 °C
(d) kcal-m/hr °C
(e) kcal-m/m2 °C.
Ans: b
2. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is
(a) J/m2 sec
(b) J/m °K sec
(c) W/m °K
(d) (a) and (c) above
(e) (b) and (c) above.
Ans: e
3. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise
in temperature normally
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on
temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
4. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous
solids with decrease in temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on
temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
5. Heat transfer takes place as per -
(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamic
(c) second law of the thermodynamics
(d) Kirchoff's law (e) Stefan's law.
Ans: c
6. When heat is transferred from one particle of hot
body to another by actual motion of the heated
particles, it is referred to as heat transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: a
7. When heat is transferred form hot body to cold
body, in a straight line, without affecting the
intervening medium, it is referred as heat transfer
by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: c
8. Sensible heat is the heat required to
(a) change vapour into liquid
(b) change liquid into vapour
(c) increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
(d) convert water into steam and superheat it
(e) convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: c
9. The insulation ability of an insulator with the
presence of moisture would
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) may increase/decrease depending on
temperature and thickness of insulation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
10. When heat is Transferred by molecular collision,
it is referred to as heat transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) scattering
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: b
11. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: b
12. Which of the following is the case of heat
transfer by radiation
(a) blast furnace
(b) heating of building
(c) cooling of parts in furnace
(d) heat received by a person from fireplace
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
13. Heat is closely related with
(a) liquids
(b) energy
(c) temperature
(d) entropy
(e) enthalpy.
Ans: c
14. Pick up the wrong case. Heat flowing from one
side to other depends directly on
(a) face area
(b) time
(c) thickness
(d) temperature difference
(e) thermal conductivity.
Ans: c
15. Metals are good conductors of heat because
(a) their atoms collide frequently
(b) their atoms-are relatively far apart
(c) they contain free electrons
(d) they have high density
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
16. Which of the following is a case of steady state
heat transfer
(a) I.C. engine
(b) air preheaters
(c) heating of building in winter
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
17. Total heat is the heat required to
(a) change vapour into liquid
(b) change liquid into vapour
(c) increase the temperature of a liquid or vapour
(d) convert water into steam and superheat it
(e) convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: d
18. Cork is a good insulator because it has
(a) free electrons
(b) atoms colliding frequency
(c) low density
(d) porous body
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
19. Thermal conductivity of water in general with
rise in temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on
temperature
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
20. Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the
order of
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.23
(c) 0.42
(d) 0.51
(e) 0.64.
Ans: d
21. Temperature of steam at around 540°C can be
measured by
(a) thermometer
(b) radiatiouv pyrometer
(c) thermistor
(d) thermocouple
(e) thermopile.
Ans: d
22. Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature
in kcal/m hr °C is of the order of
(a) 0.002
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.01
(d) 0.1
(e) 0.5.
Ans: b
23. The time constant of a thermocouple is
(a) the time taken to attain the final
temperature to be measured
(b) the time taken to attain 50% of the value of initial
temperature difference
(c) the time taken to attain 63.2% of the value of
initial temperature difference
(d) determined by the time taken to reach 100°C
from 0°C
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
24. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in
temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on
temperature
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
25. Heat flows from one body to other when they
have
(a) different heat contents
(b) different specific heat
(c) different atomic structure
(d) different temperatures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
26. The concept of overall coefficient of heat
transfer is used in heat transfer problems of
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) all the three combined
(e) conduction and comte_ction.
Ans: e
27. In heat transfer, conductance equals
conductivity (kcal/hr/sqm/°C/cm) divided by
(a) hr (time)
(b) sqm (area)
(c) °C (temperature)
(d) cm (thickness)
(e) kcal (heat).
Ans: d
28. The amount of heat flow through a body by
conduction is
(a) directly proportional to the surface area of the
body
(b) directly proportional to the temperature
difference on the two faces of the body
(c) dependent upon the material of the body
(d) inversely proportional to the thickness of the
body
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
29. Which of the following has least value of
conductivity
(a) glass
(b) water
(c) plastic
(d) rubber
(e) air.
Ans: e
30. Which of the following is expected to have
highest thermal conductivity
(a) steam
(b) solid ice
(c) melting ice
(d) water
(e) boiling water.
Ans: b
6-31. Thermal conductivity of glass-wool varies
from sample to sample because of variation in
(a) composition
(b) density
(c) porosity
(d) structure
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
32. Thermal conductivity of a material may be
defined as the
(a) quantity of heat flowing in one second through
one cm cube of material when opposite faces ^re
maintained at a temperature difference of 1°C
(b) quantity of heat flowing in one second through a
slab of the material of area one cm square,
thickness 1 cm when its faces differ in temperature
by 1°C
(c) heat conducted in unit time across unit area
through unit thickness when a temperature
difference of unity is maintained between opposite
faces
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
33. Which of the following has maximum value of
thermal conductivity
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper
(e) lead.
Ans: a
34. Moisture would find its way into insulation by
vapour pressure unless it is prevented by
(a) high thickness of insulation
(b) high vapour pressure
(c) less thermal conductivity insulator
(d) a vapour seal
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
35. Heat is transferred by all three modes of
transfer, viz, conduction, convection and radiation
in
(a) electric heater
(b) steam condenser
(c) melting of ice
(d) refrigerator condenser coils
(e) boiler.
Ans: e
36. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange
(a) it is impossible to transfer heat from low
temperature source to t high temperature source
(b) heat transfer by radiation requires no medium
(c) all bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
(d) heat transfer in most of the cases takes place
by combination of conduction, convection and
radiation
(e) rate of heat transfer depends on thermal
conductivity and temperature difference.
Ans: c
37. The ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 from two walls of
same thickness having their thermal conductivities
as ATj - 2K2 will be
(a) I
(b) 0.5
(c) 2
(d) 0.25
(e) 4.0
Ans: c
38. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon
(a) its temperature
(b) nature of the body
(c) kind and extent of its surface
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
39. Thermal diffusivity is
(a) a dimensionless parameter
(b) function of temperature
(c) used as mathematical model
(d) a physical property of the material
(e) useful in case of heat transfer by radiation.
Ans: d
40. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is .
(a) proportional of thermal conductivity
(b) inversely proportional to k
(c) proportional to (k)
(d) inversely proportional to k2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
41. Unit of thermal diffusivity is
(a) m2/hr
(b) m2/hr°C
(c) kcal/m2 hr
(d) kcal/m.hr°C
(e) kcal/m2 hr°C.
Ans: a
43. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on
(a) moisture
(b) density
(c) temperature
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
44. In convection heat transfer from hot flue gases
to water tube, even though flow may be turbulent, a
laminar flow region (boundary layer of film) exists
close to the tube. The heat transfer through this film
takes place by
(a) convection
(b) radiation
(c) conduction
(d) both convection and conduction
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
45. Film coefficient is defined as Inside diameter of
tube
(a) Equivalent thickness of film
(b) Thermal conductivity Equivalent thickness of film
Specific heat x Viscocity
(c) Thermal conductivity Molecular diffusivity of
momentum Thermal diffusivity
(d) Film coefficient x Inside diameter
Thermalconductivity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
46. Heat conducted througfi unit area and unit thick
face per unit time when temperature difference
between opposite faces is unity,is called
(a) thermal resistance
(b) thermal coefficient
(c) temperature gradient
(d) thermal conductivity
(e) heat-transfer.
Ans: d
49. The rate of energy emission from unit surface
area through unit solid angle, along a normal to the
surface, is known as
(a) emissivity
(b) transmissivity
(c) reflectivity
(d) intensity of radiation
(e) absorptivity.
Ans: d
50. Emissivity of a white polished body in
comparison to a black body is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) depends upon the shape of body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
51. A grey body is one whose absorptivity
(a) varies with temperature
(b) varies with wavelength of the incident ray
(c) is equal to its emissivity
(d) does not vary with temperature and. wavelength
of the incident ray
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
53. Two balls of same material and finish have their
diameters in the ratio of 2 : 1 and both are heated to
same temperature and allowed to cool by radiation.
Rate of cooling by big ball as compared to smaller
one will be in the ratio of
(a) 1 :1
(b) 2: 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 4 : 1
(e) 1 : 4.
Ans: c
55. A non-dimensional number generally associated
with natural convection heat transfer is
(a) Grashoff number
(b) Nusselt number
(c) Weber number
(d) Prandtl number
(e) Reynold number.
Ans: a
56. LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as
compared-to parallel flow heat exchanger is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) depends on the area of heat exchanger
(e) depends on temperature conditions.
Ans: a
57. In heat exchangers, degree of approach is
defined as the difference between temperatures of
(a) cold water inlet and outlet
(b) hot medium inlet and outlet
(c) hot medium outlet and cold water inlet
(d) hot medium outlet and cold water outlet
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
58. In counter flow heat exchangers
(a) both the fluids at inlet (of heat ex¬changer where
hot fluid enters) are in their coldest state
(b) both the fluids at inlet are in their hot¬test state
(c) both the fluids .at exit are in their hottest state
(d) one fluid is in hottest state and other in coldest
state at inlet
(e) any combination is possible depending on design
of heat exchanger.
Ans: b
59. A steam pipe is to be insulated by two insulating
materials put over each other. For best results
(a) better insulation should be put over pipe and
better one over it
(b) inferior insulation should be put over pipe and
better one over it
(c) both may be put in any order
(d) whether to put inferior OIL over pipe or the
better one would depend on steam temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
61. Fourier's law of heat conduction is valid for
(a) one dimensional cases only
(b) two dimensional cases only
(c) three dimensional cases only
(d) regular surfaces having non-uniform
temperature gradients
(e) irregular surfaces.
Ans: a
62. According of Kirchhoff's law,
(a) radiant heat is proportional to fourth power of
absolute temperature
(b) emissive power depends on temperature
(c) emissive power and absorptivity are constant
for all bodies
(d) ratio of emissive power to absorptive power is
maximum for perfectly black body
(e) ratio of emissive power to absorptive power for
all bodies is same and is equal to the emissive
power of a perfectly black body.
Ans: e
63. All radiations in a black body are
(a) reflected
(b) refracted
(c) transmitted
(d) absorbed
(e) partly reflected and partly absorbed.
Ans: d
64. According to Kirchoff's law, the ratio of emissive
power to absorptivity for all bodies is equal to the
emissive power of a
(a) grey body
(b) brilliant white polished body
(c) red hot body
(d) black body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
65. The concept of overall coefficient of heat
transfer is used in case of heat transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: d
66. The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is
(a) kcal/m2
(b) kcal/hr °C
(c) kcal/m2 hr °C
(4) kacl/m hr °C
(e) kcal/m3 hr °C.
Ans: c
68. Joule sec is the unit of
(a) universal gas constant
(b) kinematic viscosity
(c) thermal conductivity
(d) Planck's constant
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
69. The value of Prandtl number for air is about
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.7
(d) 1.7
(e) 10.5.
Ans: c
70. The value of the wavelength for maximum
emissive power is given by —
(a) Wien's law
(b) Planck's law
(c) Stefan's law
(d) Fourier's law
(e) Kirchhoff's law.
Ans: a
72. Log mean temperature difference in case of
counter flow compared to parallel flow will be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) depends on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
73. The energy distribution of an ideal reflector at
higher temperatures is largely in the range of
(a) shorter wavelength
(b) longer wavelength
(c) remains same at all wavelengths
(d) wavelength has nothing to do with it
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
74. Total emissivity of polished silver compared to
black body is
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) more or less same
(d) very much lower
(e) very much higher.
Ans: d
75. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, ideal
radiators emit radiant energy at a rate proportional
to
(a) absolute temperature
(b) square of temperature
(c) fourth power of absolute temperature
(d) fourth power of temperature
(e) cube of absolute temperature.
Ans: c
76. Which of the following property of air does not
increase with rise in temperature
(a) thermal conductivity
(b) thermal diffusivity
(c) density
(d) dynamic viscosity
(e) kuiematic viscosity.
Ans: c
77. The unit of Stefan Boltzmann constant is
(a) watt/cm2 °K
(b) watt/cm4 °K
(c) watt2/cm °K4
(d) watt/cm2 °K4
(e) watt/cm2 °K2.
Ans: d
78. In free con-vection heat transfer, Nusselt
number is function of
(a) Grashoff no. and Reynold no.
(b) Grashoff no. and Prandtl no.
(c) Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
(d) Grashoff no., Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
79. Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat
transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and radiation combined
(e) convection and radiation combined.
Ans: c
80. The thermal diffusivities for gases are generally
(a) more than those for liquids
(b) less than those for liquids
(c) more than those for solids
(d) dependent on the viscosity
(e) same as for the liquids.
Ans: a
81. The thermal diffusivities for solids are generally
(a) less than those for gases
(b) jess than those for liquids
(c) more than those for liquids and gases
(d) more or less same as for liquids and gases
(e) zerci.
Ans: c
83. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is
(a) directly proportional to thermal con¬ductivity
(b) inversely proportional to density of
substance
(c) inversely proportional to specific heat
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
85. The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive
power of all bodies is the same and is equal to the
emissive power of a perfectly black body. This
statement is known as
(a) Krichoff's law
(b) Stefan's law
(c) Wien' law
(d) Planck's law
(e) Black body law.
Ans: a
86. According to Stefan's law, the total radiation
from a black body per second per unit area is
proportional to
(a) absolute temperature
(b) T2
(c) T5
(d) t
(e) l/T.
Ans: d
87. According to Wien's law, the wavelength
corresponding to maximum energy is proportion to
(a) absolute temperature (T)
(b) I2
(c) f
(d) t
(e) 1/r.
Ans: a
88. Depending on the radiating properties, a body
will be white when
(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p=l,T = 0anda = 0
(c) p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d) x = 0, a + p = 1
(e) a = 0, x + p = 1.
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, x =
transmissivity
Ans: b
89. Depending on the radiating properties, a body
will be black when
(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p= l,T = 0anda = 0
(c) p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d) x = 0, a + p = 0
(e) a = 0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p == reflectivity, X =
transmissivity.
Ans: a
90. Depending on the radiating properties, a body
will be opaque when
(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p=l,x = 0anda = 0
(c) p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d) x - 0, a + p = 1
(e) a=0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, X =
transmissivity.
Ans: d
91. The total emissivity power is .defined as the
total amount of radiation emitted by a black body
per unit
(a) temperature
(b) thickness
(c) area
(d) time
(e) area and time.
Ans: d
92. The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to
total energy falling on it is called
(a) absorptive power
(b) emissive power
(c) absorptivity
(d) emissivity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
93. 40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of
a thermally transparent body is reflected back. If
the transmissivity of the body be 0.15, then the
emissivity of surface is
(a) 0.45
(b) 0.55
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.75
(e) 0.60.
Ans: a
94. The amount of radiation mainly depends on
(a) nature of body
(b) temperature of body
(c) type of surface of body
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
95. The emissive power of a body depends upon its
(a) temperature
(b) wave length
(c) physical nature
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
96. Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are
maintained at 1000°C and 70°C. The heat transfer
will take place mainly by
(a) convection
(b) free convection
(c) forced convection
(d) radiation
(e) radiation and convection.
Ans: d
97. Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its
emissivity
(a) at all temperatures
(b) at one particular temperature
(c) when system is under thermal equi-librium
(d) at critical temperature
(e) for a polished body.
Ans: c
98. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat
transfer takes place by
(a) direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
(b) a complete separation between hot and cold
fluids
(c) flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a
surface
(d) generation of heat again and again
(e) indirect transfer.
Ans: c
99. A perfect black body is one which
(a) is black in colour
(b) reflects all heat
(c) transmits all heat radiations
(d) abslprbs heat radiations of all wave lengths
falling on it
(e) fully opaque.
Ans: d
100. Planck's law holds good for
(a) black bodies
(b) polished bodies
(c) all coloured bodies
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
101. If the temperature of a solid surface changes
form 27°C to 627°C, then its emissive power
changes in the ratio of
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 27
(e) 81.
Ans: e
102. Depending on the radiating properties, body
will be transparent when
(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p=l,x = 0,anda = 0
(c) p = 0, T= l,anda = 0
(d) X = 0, a + p = 1
(e) a = 0,x + p= 1.
Ans: c
103. A grey body is one whose absorptivity
(a) varies with temperature
(b) varies with the wave length of incident ray
(c) varies with both
(d) does not vary with temperature and wave length
of the incident ray
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: d
Thursday, 30 April 2015
List of top books for GATE 2015 –Mechanical Engineering, as suggested by Textbook users:
The book has good number of solved examples. Going through those examples would help you build your concepts and techniques on how to use them in solving problems.
Heat and Mass Transfer 4th Edition by Cengel
A good book to understand the concepts of heat and mass transfer from basics. Language used is easy to comprehend. Book also include solved and unsolved problmes
The concepts on theory of machines are explained in detail and language again is easy. The book contains plenty of solved and unsolved problems covering all types of questions for you to practice.
This particular text is considered to be the best reference book for the subject with detailed explanations for subject and includes exercises for you to practice.
This book is a must have for all mechanical engineers, since it is the best one available for clearing concepts and all the topics are covered in a lucid manner. No other book describes the manufacturing processes better and it will definitely help you improve your concepts well enough for GATE 2015.
One of the best books which deals with this subject with perfect explanations of core concepts, innumerable examples to improve your knowledge and practice.
The book also has plenty of solved and unsolved examples which covers all the aspects of machine design. The book is vast, so choose the topics as per the gate syllabus.
Monday, 6 April 2015
Why to do M.Tech?
These are few common questions that almost every final year engineering student has in mind. I had similar questions when I was in B.Tech’s final year, and I had friends who made different decisions at that time. Few prepared GRE and TOFEL and went to US and few took computer courses and joined
software industry, few went to government jobs and few like me moved for M.Tech.
First let me share my reasons of doing M.Tech. I always thought of doing a highly respected, high paid job and a job where I have more control to do things that I like. Unfortunately, I found myself not competent enough to compete with top students for finding a job in Microsoft or Google. On the other hand, trying to reach there with experience in smaller companies usually takes a lot of time and
after that gaining a authoritative position would have taken few more years.
Here, I got a chance to think of the best way to get higher positions in a short time. I felt that the entry to this is only possible through IITs. For that either I had to wait for a year and give GATE and score high or try for PhD. Again I made a good move and decided to not to waste another year for going to IITs and moved for M.Tech.
The first thing I did in M.Tech was that I avoided mistakes I did in B.Tech. I read the tough subjects in vacation and stood ahead of any other student in class. I worked on increasing my percentage to make it high enough for any company. I did an internship at Wipro and IIT Madras and finally dissertation at Defense Labs Hyderabad.
The first and foremost advantage of doing M.Tech is that you get time to think where things are going and how you can control them. Where do you want to go and what is your ultimate destination. You
know the mistakes you made in B.Tech thus u can avoid them and improve to recover from them. The second advantage of doing M.Tech is that you add a value to education and will definitely have benefit in the long run. As we are moving ahead in life our educational qualifications are becoming more and more important. At some point where all other competitors have same technical skills you will be given preference over others because of qualification.
The third advantage is that you will get more insight into the subjects as this time you are mature enough to understand the subjects. Usually teachers or professors are better than the oneswho taught you in B.Tech and you are more exposed to applications.
The fourth advantage is you will have good friends who are similar to you and trying hard to move ahead in life. If your institute is good you will see all of them in high positions in future, their contacts may be good enough for you to start new projects and help many.
There are lots of other advantages of doing a higher degree. But there may be many social constraints and difficulties that may prevent you from doing master degree. Everyone knows their situation better than others and can make best decisions based on that. You can push your plans of having a master degree little later and gain few years of experience before. With M.Tech I also mean any master degree just not M.Tech.
Wish you all a great luck in your future endeavors.
Why is M Tech better than joining a sellout low- paying job?
By Zafar Ahmed Ansari |
For quite some time now there has been a phenomenon of so called ‘mass recruiters’ in campuses all over India. These companies pay
hardly enough in these jobs for surviving in big cities and they are very tough task masters. In
some instances people have to compulsorily do night shifts even though it is not BPO work, thus
ruining their health and peace of mind. They hire in bulk (hundreds from a single college) every year.
When people get selected for such companies they get complacent. They stop trying. After two-three
years, it is to their bitter disappointment when they realize that they are frustrated and want to leave their jobs. Till then another fresher batch is ready to take their place.
Today’s India is being built by engineers. The quality of that will depend on the quality of our engineers. Unfortunately we have focused on quantity and not quality in higher education. Private
colleges are churning out engineers who are quite literally incompetent in their fields.
A lot of blame lies in the environment these engineers find themselves in. When no one is interested in teaching or studying around them why shouldn’t they do the same? It is thus important to remember that it is we who make our destinies and not others.
For those of us who have never studied from standard books, who have gone to exams mugging up question banks and who have always started two days before exams, it is a wake-up call. Such people may have got placed but their complacency
is only an illusion. GATE 2013 is a chance to mend ways and become a good engineer for the rest of
your life. Not only will a PG from a good college give you perspective to good engineering, but more
importantly you will find yourself in company of talented and hardworking people. Their positive
influence on you will bring out the best in you.
It is not just a degree. It is a chance to start again. It is a chance to undo wrongs of your past. Go for M Tech from a good college not only for a better shot at a job, but for becoming a better engineer.
Is it possible to be a good researcher and lecturerat the same time?
well as briefly comment on some elements of good lecturing.
Vague and boring?
In one sense, I would say that engineering lecturers' research actually enriches their lectures, as they can enthuse about their research work. However, it can mean that a lecturer is in his or her own world, and so are vague or simply boring when presenting talks. It can also mean that we end up with lecturers who are endearingly quirky. I wonder sometimes whether some lecturers just view their class presentations as necessary inconveniences, which are stopping them from getting more research done. But I think that is a fairly rare attitude. Usually, my lecturers have been both approachable and helpful. Nevertheless, research lecturer often have the problem of forgetting the difficulties they themselves faced when they were learning the same content a while ago in their undergraduate degrees. And so they explain concepts either in an academic, dense way or simply in insufficient detail with an assumption that the concept is fairly obvious. But we engineering students thrive on examples when learning new formulas, and yet lecturers often give surprisingly few illustrations on how to apply those weird- looking math equations. Those valuable examples are usually shown later in the smaller tutors run by PhD students or upper-year students, thus making tutorials the place where much of our deep learning happens.
Making the numbers come to life
I'm just reflecting on all the lecturers I've had throughout my engineering degree. My lecturers have ranged from about 35 y.o. to about 75 y.o, mostly in their forties, I think. I've had excellent lectures from both the younger and older academics. According to my recollection, I've had 31 male lecturers and about four female lecturers. I've had one German, at least three Poles, two Malaysians (I think), one Mauritian, one Italian, one Swede, one Bulgarian and over 20 Australian lecturers. Each one has had their own unique sense of humour, personality and teaching style. The level of spoken English has been a limiting factor for some of my lecturers, but usually they get around this by explaining content in another way, having good powerpoint slides or having good lecture handouts. Sometimes it's just a bit too difficult for them, and so then students need to spend extra time working by themselves to understand the content. This can be quite time-consuming. Interestingly, there are some cultural trends in humour (eg. the Polish lecturers often have a cynical or sarcastic sense of humour) and style (eg. overall, the Australian teachers seemed to give more examples in lectures). Two of my female lecturers were Electrical Engineers turned lecturers, while the other two women were from the School of Mechanical Engineering.
Two big factors: Enthusiasm and Experience?
Two big factors overall in the teaching quality of lecturers I've been under from 2007 to 2012 have been simply their lecturing experience for their units as well as their personal enthusiasm for teaching. As their confidence and familiarity with their lecture slides and notes has increased of the years, the smoothness of their presentation and clarity of their explanations have doubtless improved. Also, as the lecturer receives feedback from previous students, they can expand on their previous explanations and powerpoints. But all this is negatively affected if the lecturer isn't enthusiastic. Some lecturers I've had seemed to be counting the places they'd rather be. This isn't lost on the students. If lecturers don't want to be there, then students don't either. What a surprise! On the flip side, if a lecturer like Cosimo Faiello is enthusiastic about their topic, even about one as mundane as Project Engineering Practice, then that can motivate and interest students to study more and take greater ownership of their learning. Cosi, as the Italian lecturer asks us to call him, not only exudes energy and enthusiasm about his course, but he also uses personal stories to back-up his points. Of course, this isn't easy to do with most engineering units, but it does indicate that stories do really help in engaging audiences and placing info in context. Researching and teaching: not the easiest juggling
act
So what makes a good engineering lecturer? They need to be approachable. They'll make sure that their lecture slides, handouts and comments in their lectures address questions that students are asking. They'll often talk about their research or tell stories to help students get a picture of how a principle will work in the real world, as well as to make a talk more interesting. Generally, by being themselves, as research academics, they can be quite entertaining. I really treasure the good teachers I've had a uni, and I recognise the challenges of being a good engineering lecturer (or a good lecturer in anything, really).
By whom GATE 2016 WILL BE conducted/organized??
>>" Top IIT IISc NIT to Enter Through GATE Exam"
>>"GATE Scholarship Rised by Rs.4400 from 2015"
Most importantly, every candidate will certainly be in thinking of “Which IIT IISc is going to Conduct the GATE 2016 Exam?” for sure. Just in order to resolve the dilemma and other doubts with the GATE 2016 Organizing Institute we are coming up with the traditional format of finding the stuff. Though is unclear about the GATE 2016 Exam Conducting Institute, we can guess the same as per the year wise GATE Exam conducting chart.
If there is no new interruption between the IIT and IISc Bangalore, This Year GATE 2016 Exam will be Organized by IISc Bangalore for sure. Yes, as per the estimate Indian Institute of Science(IISc), Bangalore is the GATE 2016 Organizing Institute without fail. We will certainly update you about the GATE 2016 Organizing Institute’s complete details in reliable format once it is official.
"Expected GATE 2015 Cut Off Marks for IIT NIT" GATE 2016 Syllabus is really an important stuff
to initiate your studies and other related preparations categorically. Hope you have the complete updated syllabus with you for the GATE 2015 Syllabus . If GATE 2016 Organized by IISc Bangalore, the exact and original GATE 2016
Syllabus will be listed here.
As per the survey of GATE Exam, the fees have been raised yearly. Yes, in 2012 the GATE Exam Application fees were just Rs.1000/- for both male and female candidates. By the year 2013, female candidates are exempted from paying application fees, which resulted in a huge rise in the competition from the girl’s side. For male candidates, GATE 2013 exam fees is Rs.1200/-. But, the GATE 2014 (Rs.1200/-) and GATE 2015 Application fees have really been made equally for both male and female candidates of about Rs.1500/-. Which suggests that, there might be a chance of rise in the GATE 2016 Exam Application Fees as well. The GATE 2016 organizing institute will be
confirmed within a month or two, and the complete details about the GATE 2016 Examination will be made available officially. However, the Online Application Submission of GATE 2016 will be started on September 1 st 2015 which is Tuesday.
GATE 2016 Online Application GOAPS Starts on :
>>1 st September 2015
>>Last Date of GATE 2016 Online Application ends on : 30 th September or 1 st October indeed.
>>Admit Card Can be Downloaded from Online : In the mid of December 2015
>>Date of GATE 2016 Exam: GATE 2016 Exam will be conducted from January 2016 to February
2016 in Saturday and Sundays.
>>GATE 2016 Result: Mid of March 2016
Disclaimer:
Dear GATE 2016 Aspirants, the complete details provided above are certainly like a daydream or imaginary, this might be true as well. Don’t worry, we will work hard to bring you the live and reliable updates about the GATE 2016 Exam details in due time.
Tuesday, 17 March 2015
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Mechanical Engineering:Prospects, Future andInstitutes in India
Core Companies offering Mechanical Engineering
Jobs: ISRO, DRDO, Indian Railway, ABB, TATA Motors, General Motors, Fiat, Reliance Industries,
Reliance Power Ltd, Asoka Leyland, Mahindra and Mahindra to name few.
Average Salary: 2.5~3.5 Lakh Rupees per annum
All NITs
Almost All State universities and Private Engineering colleges
All Deemed universities
Saturday, 14 March 2015
How many attempts do i need to qualify anyexamination?
After a long long time, I am back to my blog. Today I am going to write on a topic on which I was
thinking to write for a long time. Now that I have got the time to express my views here, let’s see what I have to see & whether you are going to agree with me or not.
Many people have a ‘big’ question in their mind-
“Can I clear xyz exam in my first attempt?” This ‘xyz’ could be any examination, be it GATE or IES or IAS or CAT etc etc
I bet at some point or the other, this question might have come to your mind. I know this because it happens to everyone, even me too. But eventually I realized the secret behind the “attempts” question. I am going to reveal that secret today.. First of all, why are we so much obsessed with attempts?
The first & the obvious reason is that it tells how much years one has saved, preparing for the examination. But, what I think is that this ‘unit’ is faulty, unless you combine with your age. A guy of
24 years age having cleared the exam in 2nd attempt will be in a similar position with a guy in his 25 having cleared in first attempt. Obviously, everyone wants to reach to the top as quickly as possible. The early one starts, the earlier he gets to the position. Moreover, coaching try to commercialize this ‘attempts’ as their marketing strategy. We tend to fall for that strategy, unfortunately. But is this really an important criteria?
Why attempts matter so much?
And most importantly, how can I get out of this ‘attempts’ mindset? To know the answers to these questions, let’s ask ourselves another question- What changes when a guy goes for his next attempt after being unsuccessful in his previous attempt?
When someone goes for a further attempt, according to what I have seen & felt, these changes appear-
(1) Knowledge – Not much change. Say 10-20% only!
(2) Strategy – Changes substantially.
(3) Attitude towards exam- Changes substantially.
This means, an extra attempt does not means extra study. It means change in attitude & strategy. No
doubt, exceptions are always there. Before we proceed further, let’s have a look at 3 types of people into which all of them can be classified. This classification is based on the “learning from the mistakes” attitude. How quickly one adapts to the changes required in his/her strategy, makes him/her stand out of the crowd.
Type 1- These people are extremely smart as they learn from the mistakes of others. They keep on looking for the mistakes that there seniors did in their previous attempts. Then they check whether they lack in that field too & if needed, they improve on that. Many people go to coaching for the same. These people when go for their first attempt, find many loopholes already filled by them. Such people, mostly clear the examinations in 1st or 2nd attempt.
Type 2- These people somewhat lag from type 1 people as they only learn from their own mistakes. They sit for their first attempt without any guards & unfortunately find it too difficult to clear. But subsequently, they start to learn their mistakes in previous attempt & by improving on them, they come with flying colors in 2nd or 3rd attempt. That depends on how quickly one learns from his mistakes after recognizing what were his mistakes.
Type 3- These people don’t learn at all. They keep on applying for the exams again & again & again without any change in strategy or methodology only to see the same result again & again & again.
So, now we know about the three type of people. The point to ne noted is that the classification is not based on someone’s intelligence. It is based merely on the person’s attitude to learn. The Quickly you learn, the quickly you qualify. But you know, what is the best part? The ‘type’ of the person can be changed. Bring that change is yourself. Talk to seniors, talk to classmates. Talk about their mistakes done in previous attempts. I agree that luck plays a role too, but that role is limited. You should give your best. Forget about the number of attempts. Only remember one thing- Improvement in strategy & techniques. The difference between a selected & a not-selected candidate is created during the 3
hours exam only.
Have faith in yourselves, Have faith in your learning abilities. Be Unconventional.
Why do people fail in GATE/IES- Know the rules ofthe game..
You may say that the second guy might be a genius, a prodigy having exceptionally good intelligence. Ok, I agree that some will be like that,
but not everyone is like that. What the first type of people are missing is the right approach.
How?
I guess that you must have played the game of carom sometime in our life upto now.. Whether you enjoy it or not is not the question here.
Now, you do this continuously for 10 days.
What will happen at the tournament?
Will you win? I doubt you could even win a single match!
So, what was the problem with your approach?
The thing is that- You missed the rule of the game.
To win, you should know the rules first.
In exams like GATE or IES, or most of the examinations of the world, You are judged on the basis of your solutions that you do within a fixed period of time, and that’s all!
So, if you are preparing without practicing, you are digging your own grave. In the end, you will think like-“ I always study so much, but I never get to clear the exams.. I have a bad luck..”
Dear friend, bad luck is nothing but your own thinking & deeds.
Moreover, thinking like this, will not fetch you anything but more disappointment.
I hear and I forget.
I see and I remember.
I do and I understand.
All the best :-)
If you feel this article sharable, share it so that you can have more tough competitors in exams.. ;-)
Tuesday, 3 March 2015
5 Best Mechanical Engineering Books
Marks' Standard Handbook for Mechanical Engineers by E. A. Aballone, T. Baumeister, and A. Saegh is one of the best mechanical engineering books you can find. This book provides comprehensive guide to all aspects of the field and it has been used as one of the standard handbooks for engineers for decades. It has all the important engineering principles and mathematical methods that you will need in a brief yet clear manner. The eleventh edition, which is the latest edition, even covers high technology areas such as biotechnology and nanotechnology.
Without a doubt, every mechanical engineer should have a good design handbook. Shigley's Mechanical Engineering Design by R. Budynas and K. Nisbett has been used as the standard machine design handbook for more than 40 years. The book covers basic concepts of machine design very clearly, so it is no wonder that it is frequently listed as one of the must-have books for mechanical engineering students.
For almost a century, Erik Oberg's Machinery's Handbook has been used as a reference book by mechanical and manufacturing engineers, toolmakers, draftsmen, designers, and machinists. It covers a very wide area, from the basic to the more advanced concepts. The 28thedition features a very user-friendly format and revised material on manufacturing processes, tools and toolmaking, and more.
As a very dynamic field, mechanical engineering has lots of branches, and thermodynamics is one of them. Fundamentals of Thermodynamics by C. Borgnakke and R. E. Sonntag, is one of the most popular books on this topic. This book is ideal for both professionals and students because it provides comprehensive guide to classical thermodynamics. It is packed with examples, homework problems, and illustrations to help students to gain a better understanding of the topic.
Design engineers are expected to have knowledge of materials science. If you want to gain an in-depth knowledge about the properties and behaviors of various materials, then you should definitely read W. D. Callister and D. G. Rethwisch's Materials Science and Engineering: An Introduction. The book covers all the major materials that are commonly used in machine manufacturing such as ceramics, metals, and polymers. It also discusses about the relationships that exist between the structural elements of materials and their properties
Monday, 2 March 2015
How to prepare for GATE?
GATE is an exam that tests you on your fundamentals. The questions are generally derivations of the fundamentals. Preparation for GATE is an ongoing process, and is supposed to happen in stages. First get your fundamentals right, and then test yourself on those fundamentals. When you have done this, you should pit yourself with the competition, which means a mock test which would give you a percentile to let you know where you stand amongst competitors. How do you choose which coaching material to go with. This is something that is quite subjective. A coaching material cannot be assessed until you have gone through it. So, you could go by the word of your seniors as to what coaching material they followed to prepare for GATE. Here are some parameters on which you can decide whether you should go for a particular coaching institute, use a particular coaching material, or tests:
1. Material Collection
Syllabus : All the relevant books based on the subject(Divide the books in two groups - (1)Fundamental and basic concepts (2) Problem oriented Some books helpful for pre-requisite knowledge on the subject Some good guide books for Gate Previous questions papers
2. Keep contact with some expert and GATE experienced persons
3. Study - Syllabus and Previous questions papers
4. Start from the first chapter read at least 5 books, it will widen your knowledge(if necessary consult with the books for per-requisite knowledge or with some expert)Note down the probable concepts(definitions, unit, dimension etc.)Note down necessary theories, formula etc Solve problems as maximum as possible(from text books, Guide books etc)Think about various tricks in solving problems(if necessary, note it)Go for series of self tests based on this chapter(take other's help to conduct tests)Continue the self tests until getting a very good score
5. Solve more and more problems, discover more and more new tricks…
6. Follow the same procedure for the rest chapters
7. Finally, go for self tests based on whole syllabus(take other's help to conduct these tests)
8. Well, So...... on the exam day…you will be at your best, who can stop you?
9. Uniqueness in their Study material provided by the coaching institutes is of little assistance if they are compact copy-paste or rewrite of materials taken from other books. If the reading of such material doesn’t increase interest and enjoyment then they are not worth it. There are plenty of standard books on each subject by good authors, which can make your study enjoyable during preparation.
10. Collection of quality books in their library: During the process of theory conceptualization and building application capabilities, you need good books, which can really put your brain on exercise. Check out their library!
11. Flexibility in the Coaching Model: What happens when your pace of learning is much faster or slower than the average? Is there any mechanism by which the model can identify exactly where you need help and provide the same? Is it possible in that coaching model to minimize the wastage of your time?
12. Quality of questions discussed: Number of questions discussed is not that important. By discussing and solving 10-15 conceptual questions on each topic you can build a good application capability. On the other hand solving many tricky non-conceptual questions will simply waste your time.
13. Tests and evaluation model: How is the progress of your preparation tested and analyzed? To what extent the feedback helps in identifying the areas for further work? Here I must say that this is the most crucial part of the preparation. This is the area where most of the students fail due to lack of proper test materials which can help them to build in themselves a real-test-like environment and temperament. Once you are able to choose the correct assistance for your GATE journey, it will be an enjoying and thrilling experience.
14. Simulate actual test environment : This is very important. The actual test happens in a classroom, and is timed. When you take up the test, switch off your cell phone, have a timer which times your tests, and avoid taking any breaks. Also, if possible, take up a mock test series which enables you to take the test in a classroom environment..
15. Take up an all India test series which gives you your percentile and All India Rank : This is very important to avoid the “frog in the pond syndrome. Students tend to take it easy if they attain a high score in the tests. However, GATE is an exam in which people are selected on their relative scores. So even if you have scored 95% it does not essentially translate to a percentile of 95. You are competing with the best in India, and to get through GATE you should know where you stand to be among the ‘top few’ selected for the interview.
16. Analyze : Analyzing your test results is a very important part of taking the test. If you do not analyze, the test does not add value. You should minutely analyze and define as to where you could have scored more; analyze your accuracy rates in various topics and maintain a topic wise datasheet which lists your performance topic wise for different test papers..