Friday 1 May 2015

Hydraulic Machines - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers

Hydraulic Machines -
Mechanical Engineering Multiple
choice Questions and Answers

1. Reciprocating pumps are no more to be seen in
industrial applications (in comparison to centrifugal
pumps) because of
(a) high initial and maintenance cost
(b) lower discharge
(c) lower speed of operation
(d) necessity of air vessel
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
2. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water
leaving the impeller, is
(a) rectilinear flow
(b) radial flow
(c) free vortex motion
(d) forced vortex
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
3. Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends
on
(a) impeller diameter
(b) speed
(c) fluid density
(d) type of casing
(e) (a) and (b) above.
Ans: e
4. For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve
should be
(a) closed
(b) open
(c) depends on starting condition and flow desired
(d) could be either open or closed
(e) partly open and partly closed.
Ans: b
5. The efficiency of a centrifugal pump is maximum
when its blades are
(a) straight
(b) bent forward
(c) bent backward
(d) bent forward first and then backward
(e) bent backward first and then forward.
Ans: c
6. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water
leaving the
(a) radial
(b) radial
(c) centrifugal
(d) rectilinear
(e) vortex.
Ans: e
7. Centrifugal pump is started with its delivery valve
(a) kept fully closed
(b) kept fully open
(c) irrespective of any position
(d) kept 50% open
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
8. Axial flow pump is started with its delivery valve
(a) kept fully closed
(b) kept fully open
(c) irrespective of any position
(d) kept 50% open
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
9. When a piping system is made up primarily of
vertical lift and very little pipe friction, the pump
characteristics should be
(a) horizontal
(b) nearly horizontal
(c) steep
(d) first rise and then fall
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
10. One horsepower is equal to
(a) 102 watts
(b) 75 watts
(c) 550 watts
(d) 735 watts
(e) 33000 watts.
Ans: d
11. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to obtain
(a) high discharge
(b) high head
(c) pumping of viscous fluids
(d) high head and high discharge
(e) high efficiency.
Ans: b
12. When a piping system is made up primarily of
friction head and very little of vertical lift, then pump
characteristics should be
(a) horizontal
(b) nearly horizontal
(c) steep
(d) first rise and then fall
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
13. In a single casing, multistage pump running at
constant speed, the capacity rating is to be slightly
lowered. It can be done by
(a) designing new impeller
(b) trimming the impeller size to the required size by
machining
(c) not possible
(d) some other alterations in the impeller
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
14. If a pump is handling water and is discharging a
certain flow Q at a constant total dynamic head
requiring a definite B.H.P., the same pump when
handling a liquid of specific gravity 0.75 and
viscosity nearly same as of water would discharge
(a) same quantity of liquid
(b) 0.75 Q
(c) Q/0.75
(d) 1.5 Q
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
15. The horse power required in above case will be
(a) same
(b) 0.75 B.H.P.
(c) B.H.P./0.75
(d) 1.5 B.H.P.
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
16. Low specific speed of a pump implies it is
(a) centrifugal pump
(b) mixed flow pump
(c) axial flow pump
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
17. The optimum value of vane exit angle for a
centrifugal pump impeller is
(a) 10-15°
(b) 20-25°
(c) 30-40°
(d) 50-60°
(e) 80-90°.
Ans: b
18. In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the pump
(a) at the top
(b) at the bottom
(c) at the center
(d) from sides
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
19. For small discharge at high pressure, following
pump is preferred
(a) centrifugal
(b) axial flow
(c) mixed flow
(d) propeller
(e) reciprocating.
Ans: e
20. In centrifugal pumps, maximum efficiency is
obtained when the blades are
(a) straight
(b) bent forward
(c) bent backward
(d) radial
(e) given aerofoil section.
Ans: c
21. Motion of a liquid in a volute casing of a
centrifugal pump is an example of
(a) rotational flow
(b) radial
(c) forced spiral vortex flow
(d) forced cylindrical vortex flow
(e) spiral vortex flow.
Ans: e
22. For very high discharge at low pressure such as
for flood control and irrigation applications, following
type of pump is preferred
(a) centrifugal
(b) axial flow
(c) reciprocating
(d) mixed flow
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
23. Medium specific speed of a pump implies it is
(a) centrifugal pump
(b) mixed flow pump
(c) axial flow pump
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
24. High specific speed of a pump implies it is
(a) centrifugal pump
(b) mixed flow pump
(c) axial flow pump
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
25. Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a
graph between
(a) flow vs swept volume
(b) pressure in cylinder vs swept volume
(c) flow vs speed
(d) pressure vs speed
(e) swept volume vs speed.
Ans: b
26. Low specific speed of turbine implies it is
(a) propeller turbine
(b) Francis turbine
(c) impulse turbine
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
27. Any change in load is adjusted by adjusting
following parameter on turbine
(a) net head
(b) absolute velocity
(c) blade velocity
(d) flow
(e) relative velocity of flow at inlet.
Ans: d
28. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is
(a) full load speed
(b) the speed at which turbine runner will be
damaged
(c) the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to
revolve freely without load and with the wicket
gates wide open
(d) the speed corresponding to maximum overload
permissible
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
29. The maximum number of jets generally
employed in impulse turbine without jet interference
is
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12
(e) 16.
Ans: b
30. Medium specific speea of turbine implies it is
(a) propeller turbine
(b) Francis turbine
(c) impulse turbine
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
31. High specific speed of turbine implies it is
(a) propeller turbine
(b) Francis turbine
(c) impulse turbine
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
32. The specific speed of turbine is defined as the
speed of a unit
(a) of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at
unit head
(b) of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at
unit power
(c) of such a size that it requires unit power per unit
head
(d) of such a size that it produces unit horse power
with unit head
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
33. Puck up the wrong statement about centrifugal
pump
(a) discharge a diameter
(b) head a speed2
(c) head a diameter
(d) Power a speed3
(e) none of the above is wrong.
Ans: a
34. A turbine pump is basically a centrifugal pump
equipped additionally with
(a) adjustable blades
(b) backward curved blades
(c) vaned diffusion casing
(d) inlet guide blades
(e) totally submerged operation facility.
Ans: c
35. Casting of a centrifugal pump is designed so as
to minimize
(a) friction loss
(b) cavitation
(c) static head
(d) loss of kinetic energy
(e) starting time.
Ans: d
36. In reaction turbine, draft tube is used
(a) to transport water downstream without eddies
(b) to convert the kinetic energy to flow energy by a
gradual expansion of the flow cross-section
(c) for safety of turbine
(d) to increase flow rate
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
37. Guide angle as per the aerofoil theory of Kaplan
turbine blade design is defined as the angle
between
(a) lift and resultant force
(b) drag and resultant force
(c) lift and tangential force
(d) lift and drag
(e) resultant force and tangential force.
Ans: a
38. Francis turbine is best suited for
(a) medium head application from 24 to 180 m
(b) low head installation up to 30 m
(c) high head installation above 180 m
(d) all types of heads
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
39. The flow rate in gear pump
(a) increases with increase in pressure
(b) decreases with increase in pressure
(c) more or less remains constant with in-crease in
pressure
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
40. Impulse turbine is generally fitted
(a) at the level of tail race
(b) little above the tail race
(c) slightly below the tail race
(d) about 2.5 m above the tail race to avoid
cavitation
(e) about 2.5 m below the tail race to avoid
cavitation.
Ans: b
41. Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under
the category of
(a) Impulse turbines
(b) Reaction turbines
(c) Axial flow turbines
(d) Mixed flow turbines
(e) Reaction-cum-impulse turbines.
Ans: b
42. Reaction turbines are used for
(a) low head
(b) high head
(c) high head and low discharge
(d) high head and high discharge
(e) low head and high discharge.
Ans: e
43. The discharge through a reaction turbine with
increase in unit speed
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: b
44. The angle of taper on draft tube is
(a) greater than 15°
(b) greater than 8°
(c) greater than 5°
(d) less than 8°
(e) less than 3°.
Ans: d
45. Specific speed for reaction turbines ranges from
(a) 0 to 4.5
(b) 10 to 100
(c) 80 to 200
(d) 250 to 300
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
46. In axial flow fans and turbines, fluid enters and
leaves as follows
(a) radially, axially
(b) axially, radially
(c) axially, axially
(d) radially, radially
(e) combination of axial and radial.
Ans: c
47. Which place in hydraulic turbine is most
susceptible for cavitation
(a) inlet of draft rube
(b) blade inlet
(c) guide blade
(d) penstock
(e) draft tube exit.
Ans: a
48. Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used to
(a) smoothen flow
(b) reduce acceleration to minimum
(c) increase pump efficiency
(d) save pump from cavitation
(e) increase pump head.
Ans: b
49. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air
vessel to single acting reciprocating pump is of the
order of
(a) 39.2%
(b) 49.2%
(c) 68.8%
(d) 84.8%
(e) 91.6%.
Ans: d
50. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air
vessel to double acting reciprocating pump is of the
order of
(a) 39.2%
(b) 49.2%
(c) 68.8%
(d) 84.8%
(e) 91.6%.
Ans: a
51. According to fan laws, for fans having constant
wheel diameter, the air or gas capacity varies
(a) directly as fan speed
(b) square of fan speed
(c) cube of fan speed
(d) square root of fan speed
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
52. According to fan laws, for fans having constant
wheel diameter, the pressure varies
(a) directly as fan speed
(b) square of fan speed
(c) cube of fan speed
(d) square root of fan speed
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
53. According to fan laws, for the fans having
constant wheel diameters, the power demand varies
(a) directly as fan speed
(b) square of fan speed
(c) cube of fan speed
(d) square root of fan speed
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
54. According to fan laws, at constant speed and
capacity, the pressure and power vary
(a) directly as the air or gas density
(b) inversely as square root of density
(c) inversely as density
(d) as square of density
(e) as square root of density.
Ans: a
55. According to fan laws, at constant pressure, the
speed capacity and power vary
(a) directly as the air or gas density
(b) inversely as square root of density
(c) inversely as density
(d) as square of density
(e) as square root of density.
Ans: b
56. According to fan laws, at constant weight of air
or gas, the speed, capacity and pressure vary
(a) directly as the air or gas density
(b) inversely as square root of density
(c) inversely as density
(d) as square of density
(e) as square root of density.
Ans: c
57. Pressure intensifier increases the pressure in
proportion to
(a) ratio of diameters
(b) square of ratio of diameters
(c) inverse ratio of diameters
(d) square of inverse ratio of diameters
(e) fourth power of ratio of diameters.
Ans: b
58. A hydraulic accumulator normally consists of
(a) two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
(b) a cylinder and a ram
(c) two co-axial rams and two cylinders
(d) a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control
valve
(e) special type of pump with storage device and a
pressure regulator.
Ans: b
59. A hydraulic intensifier normally consists of
(a) two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
(b) a cylinder and a ram
(c) two co-axial rams and two cylinders
(d) a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control
valve
(e) special type of pump with storage device and a
pressure regulator.
Ans: c
60. Hydraulic accumulator is used for
(a) accumulating oil
(b) supplying large quantities of oil for very short
duration
(c) generally high pressures to operate hydraulic
machines
(d) supplying energy when main supply fails
(e) accumulating hydraulic energy.
Ans: d
61. Maximum impulse will be developed in hydraulic
ram when
(a) waste valve closes suddenly
(b) supply pipe is long
(c) supply pipe is short
(d) ram chamber is large
(e) supply pipe has critical diameter,
Ans: a

Fluid Mechanics - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers

Fluid Mechanics -
Mechanical Engineering Multiple
choice Questions and Answers

1. Fluid is a substance that
(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any container
(c) has the same shear stress.at a point regardless
of its motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear
force
(e) flows.
Ans: d
2. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to
change of
(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) shape
(d) volume
(e) temperature.
Ans: c
3. Practical fluids
(a) are viscous
(b) possess surface tension
(c) are compressible
(d) possess all the above properties
(e) possess none of the above properties.
Ans: d
4. In a static fluid
(a) resistance to shear stress is small
(b) fluid pressure is zero
(c) linear deformation is small
(d) only normal stresses can exist
(e) viscosity is nil.
Ans: d
5. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
(a) incompressible
(b) inviscous
(c) viscous and incompressible
(d) inviscous and compressible
(e) inviscous and incompressible.
Ans: e
6. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the
following
(a) Newton's law of motion
(b) Newton's law of viscosity
(c) Pascal' law
(d) Continuity equation
(e) Boundary layer theory.
Ans: d
7. If no resistance is encountered by displacement,
such a substance is known as
(a) fluid
(b) water
(c) gas
(d) perfect solid
(e) ideal fluid.
Ans: e
8. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a
resistance is known as
(a) volumetric strain
(b) volumetric index
(c) compressibility
(d) adhesion
(e) cohesion.
Ans: c
9. Liquids
(a) cannot be compressed
(b) occupy definite volume
(c) are not affected by change in pressure and
temperature
(d) are not viscous
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
10. Density of water is maximum at
(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C
(d) 100°C
(e) 20°C.
Ans: c
11. The value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for
water at 0°C is
(a) 1
(b) 1000
(c) 100
(d) 101.9
(e) 91
Ans: d
12. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules
are attracted is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: b
13. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to
property of liquid known as
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
Ans: c
14. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist
tensile stress is known as
(a) compressibility
(b) surface tension
(c) cohesion
(d) adhesion
(e) viscosity.
Ans: c
15. Property of a fluid by which molecules of
different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other
is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: a
16. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m"
(a) at normal pressure of 760 mm
(b) at 4°C temperature
(c) at mean sea level
(d) all the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
17. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to
(a) 1000 N/m3
(b) 10000 N/m3
(c) 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
(d) 9.81 xlO6N/m3
(e) 9.81 N/m3.
Ans: c
18. When the flow parameters at any given instant
remain same at every point, then flow is said to be
(a) quasi static
(b) steady state
(c) laminar
(d) uniform
(e) static.
Ans: d
19. Which of the following is demensionless
(a) specific weight
(b) specific volume
(c) specific speed
(d) specific gravity
(e) specific viscosity.
Ans: d
20. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in
all directions at a point only if
(a) it is incompressible
(b) it has uniform viscosity
(c) it has zero viscosity
(d) it is frictionless
(e) it is at rest.
Ans: e
21. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be
same in all the directions when the fluid is
(a) moving
(b) viscous
(c) viscous and static
(d) inviscous and moving
(e) viscous and moving.
Ans: e
22. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg on
a spring balance. The value of 'g' at this place is
(a) 10m/sec2
(b) 9.81 m/sec2
(c) 10.2/m sec
(d) 9.75 m/sec2
(e) 9 m/sec .
Ans: a
23. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is
due to the following property
(a) cohesion
(b) adhesion
(c) viscosity
(d) surface tension
(e) elasticity.
Ans: d
24. The surface tension of mercury at normal
temperature compared to that of water is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on size of glass tube
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
25. A perfect gas
(a) has constant viscosity
(b) has zero viscosity
(c) is in compressible
(d) is of theoretical interest
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
26. For very great pressures, viscosity of moss
gases and liquids
(a) remains same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) shows erratic behavior
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
27. A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain
(a) tensile stress
(b) compressive stress
(c) shear stress
(d) bending stress
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c
28. Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) higher/lower depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
29. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in
pressure
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) increases first up to certain limit and then
decreases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
30. The bulk modulus of elasticity
(a) has the dimensions of 1/pressure
(b) increases with pressure
(c) is large when fluid is more compressible
(d) is independent of pressure and viscosity
(e) is directly proportional to flow.
Ans: b
31. A balloon lifting in air follows the following
principle
(a) law of gravitation
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) principle of buoyancy
(d) all of the above
(e) continuity equation.
Ans: d
32. The value of the coefficient of compressibility for
water at ordinary pressure and temperature in kg/
cm is equal to
(a) 1000
(b) 2100
(c) 2700
(d) 10,000
(e) 21,000.
Ans: e
33. The increase of temperature results in
(a) increase in viscosity of gas
(b) increase in viscosity of liquid
(c) decrease in viscosity of gas
(d) decrease in viscosity of liquid
(e) (a) and (d) above.
Ans: d
34. Surface tension has the units of
(a) newtons/m
(b) newtons/m
(c) new tons/m
(d) newtons
(e) newton m.
Ans: c
35. Surface tension
(a) acts in the plane of the interface normal to any
line in the surface
(b) is also known as capillarity
(c) is a function of the curvature of the interface
(d) decreases with fall in temperature
(e) has no units.
Ans: a
36. The stress-strain relation of the newtoneon fluid
is
(a) linear
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) inverse type
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
37. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of
0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume of 0.039 m3 at
150 kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid
is
(a) 400 kg/cm2
(b) 4000 kg/cm2
(c) 40 x 105 kg/cm2
(d) 40 x 106 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
38. The units of viscosity are
(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre2
(d) newton-sec per meter
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
39. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon
(a) pressure
(b) distance
(c) level
(d) flow
(e) density.
Ans: e
40. Units of surface tension are
(a) energy/unit area
(b) distance
(c) both of the above
(d) it has no units
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
41. Which of the following meters is not associated
with viscosity
(a) Red wood
(b) Say bolt
(c) Engler
(d) Orsat
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
42. Choose the correct relationship
(a) specific gravity = gravity x density
(b) dynamicviscosity = kinematicviscosity x density
(c) gravity = specific gravity x density
(d) kinematicviscosity = dynamicviscosity x density
(e) hydrostaticforce = surface tension x gravity.
Ans: b
43. Dimensions of surface tension are
(a) MlL°T2
(b) MlL°Tx
(c) MlL r2
(d) MlL2T2
(e) MlL°t.
Ans: a
44. For manometer, a better liquid combination is
one having
(a) higher surface tension
(b) lower surface tension
(c) surface tension is no criterion
(d) high density and viscosity
(e) low density and viscosity.
Ans: a
45. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water,
the height of 3.75 cm of mercury will be following
cm of water
(a) 51 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 52 cm
(d) 52.2 cm
(e) 51.7 cm.
Ans: a
46. Choose the wrong statement.
Alcohol is used in manometer, because
(a) its vapour pressure is low
(b) it provides suitable meniscus for the inclined
tube
(c) its density is less
(d) it provides longer length for a given pressure
difference
(e) it provides accurate readings.
Ans: a
47. Increase in pressure at the outer edge of a
drum of radius R due to rotation at corad/sec, full of
liquid of density p will be
(a) pco2/?2
(b) pco2/?2/2
(c) 2pa2R2
(d) pa2R/2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
48. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers
resistance to shear is called
(a) surface tension
(b) adhesion
(c) cohesion
(d) viscosity
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
49. Choose the wrong statement
(a) fluids are capable of flowing
(b) fluids conform to the shape of the containing
vessels
(c) when in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain
tangential forces
(d) when in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear
forces
(e) fluids have some degree of comprehensibility
and offer little resistance to form.
Ans: d
50. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at
(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C (d) 20°C
(e) all temperature.
Ans: c
51. If w is the specific weight of liquid and k the
depth of any point from the surface, then pressure
intensity at that point will be
(a) h
(b) wh
(c) w/h
(d) h/w
(e) h/wh.
Ans: b
52. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Viscosity of a fluid is that property which
determines the amount of its resistance to a
shearing force
(b) Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between
fluid molecules
(c) Viscosity of liquids decreases with in-crease in
temperature
(d) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by
change in pressure
(e) Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or
saybolt seconds.
Ans: d
53. The units of kinematic viscosity are
(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre
(d) newton-sec per metre
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
54.  The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density
is known as
(a) specific viscosity
(b) viscosity index
(c) kinematic viscosity
(d) coefficient of viscosity
(e) coefficient of compressibility.
Ans: c
55. Kinematic viscosity is equal to
(a) dynamic viscosity/density
(b) dynamicviscosity x density
(c) density/dynamic viscosity
(d) 1/dynamicviscosity x density
(e) same as dynamic viscosity.
Ans: a
56. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic
viscosity
(a) pascal
(b) poise
(c) stoke
(d) faraday
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
57. A one dimensional flow is one which
(a) is uniform flow
(b) is steady uniform flow
(c) takes place in straight lines
(d) involves zero transverse component of flow
(e) takes place in one dimension.
Ans: d
58.  Alcohol is used in manometers because
(a) it has low vapour pressure
(b) it is clearly visible
(c) it has low surface tension
(d) it can provide longer column due to low density
(e) is provides suitable meniscus.
Ans:  d
59. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to
(a) 25 kN/m2
(b) 245 kN/m2
(c) 2500 kN/m2
(d) 2.5kN/m2
(e) 12.5 kN/m2.
Ans: b
60. Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure
water because it contains
(a) dissolved air
(b) dissolved salt
(c) suspended matter
(d) all of the above
(e) heavy water.
Ans: d
61. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic
meter, men 0.85 represents its
(a) specific weight
(b) specific mass
(c) specific gravity
(d) specific density
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
62. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the
smallest possible area due to force of
(a) surface tension
(b) viscosity
(c) friction
(d) cohesion
(e) adhesion.
Ans: a
63. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring
balance. An iron piece is suspended into water
without touching sides of bucket from another
support. The spring balance reading will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase/decrease depending on depth of
immersion
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
64. Falling drops of water become spheres due to
the property of
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
Ans: c
65. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces
as compared to cohesion forces are
(a) less
(b) more
(c) equal
(d) less at low temperature and more at high
temperature
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: b
66. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is
greater than adhesion between fluid and glass, then
the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
(a) higher than the surface of liquid
(b) the same as the surface of liquid
(c) lower than the surface of liquid
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
67. The point in the immersed body through which
the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to
act is known as
(a) meta center
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
68. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical
sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface being
0.5 m below the water level will be
(a) 500 kg
(b) 1000 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 2000 kg
(e) 4000 kg.
Ans: d
69. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a
floating body is equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced by the body. This definition is according to
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Equilibrium of a floating body
(c) Archimedes' principle
(d) Bernoulli's theorem
(e) Metacentric principle.
Ans: c
70. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an
immersed body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) buoyancy
(c) center of pressure
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of above is correct.
Ans: b
71. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a
floating body are
(a) the meta-center should lie above the center of
gravity
(b) the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity
must lie on the same vertical line
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of the above is correct.
Ans: d
72. Poise is the unit of
(a) surface tension
(b) capillarity
(c) viscosity
(d) shear stress in fluids
(e) buoyancy.
Ans: c
73. Metacentric height is given as the distance
between
(a) the center of gravity of the body and the meta
center
(b) the center of gravity of the body and the center
of buoyancy
(c) the center of gravity of the body and the center
of pressure
(d) center of buoyancy and metacentre
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
74. The buoyancy depends on
(a) mass of liquid displaced
(b) viscosity of the liquid
(c) pressure of the liquid displaced
(d) depth of immersion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
75. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid
displaced by an immersed body is called
(a) meta-center
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
76. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is
placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what
fraction of it volume is under mercury?
(a) the metal piece will simply float over the
mercury
(b) the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by
half
(c) whole of the metal piece will be immersed with
its top surface just at mercury level
(d) metal piece will sink to the bottom
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
77. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends
upon
(a) the nature of the liquid and the solid
(b) the material which exists above the free surface
of the liquid
(c) both of die above
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of die above.
Ans: c
78. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and
tends to contract to smallest possible area due to
the
(a) force of adhesion
(b) force of cohesion
(c) force of friction
(d) force of diffusion
(e) none of die above.
Ans: b
79.  Rain drops are spherical because of
(a) viscosity
(b) air resistance
(c) surface tension forces
(d) atmospheric pressure
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
80.  Surface energy per unit area of a surface is
numerically equal to ..
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) surface tension
(c) force of adhesion
(d) force of cohesion
(e) viscosity.
Ans: b
81. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube
of 1 mm bore containing water is approximately
(a) 1 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 20 mm
(e) 30 mm.
Ans: e
82.  The difference of pressure between the inside
and outside of a liquid drop is
(a)p = Txr
(b)p = T/r
(c) p = T/2r
(d)p = 2T/r
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
83.  If the surface of liquid is convex, men
(a) cohesion pressure is negligible
(b) cohesion pressure is decreased
(c) cohesion pressure is increased
(d) there is no cohesion pressure
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
84. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe
line over the ridge is laid such that it is not more
than
(a) 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(b) 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(c) 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
(d) 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
85. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon,
an air vessel is provided
(a) at the inlet
(b) at the outlet
(c) at the summit
(d) ay nay point between inlet and outlet
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
86. The vapour pressure over the concave surface
is
(a) less man the vapour pressure over the plane
surface
(b) equal to the vapour pressure over the plane
surface
(c) greater than the vapour pressure over the plane
surface
(d) zero
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
87. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes
relative motion between its different layers is called
(a) surface tension
(b) co-efficient of viscosity
(c) viscosity
(d) osmosis
(e) cohesion.
Ans: c
88. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the
other through a semi-permeable membrane is
called
(a) viscosity
(b) osmosis
(c) surface tension
(d) cohesion
(e) diffusivity.
Ans: b
89. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are
(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/meter
(c) newton-sec per meter
(d) newton-sec2 per meter
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
90. The continuity equation is connected with
(a) viscous/unviscous fluids
(b) compressibility of fluids
(c) conservation of mass
(d) steady/unsteady flow
(e) open channel/pipe flow.
Ans: c
91. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to
surface tensionwim increase in size of tube will
(a) increase
(b) remain unaffected
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the
characteristics of liquid
(d) decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d
92. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the
directions. This is according to
(a) Boyle's law
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) Pascal's law
(d) Newton's formula
(e) Chezy's equation.
Ans: c
93. Capillary action is due to the
(a) surface tension
(b) cohesion of the liquid
(c) adhesion of the liquid molecules and the
molecules on the surface of a solid
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
94. Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship
between
(a) shear stress anctthejiate of angular distortion
(b) shear stress and viscosity
(c) shear stress, velocity and viscosity
(d) pressure, velocity and viscosity
(e) shear stress, pressure and rate of angular
distortion.
Ans: a
95. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude
decreases
(a) linearly
(b) first slowly and then steeply
(c) first steeply and then gradually
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
96. Pressure of the order of 10"' torr can be
measured by
(a) Bourdon tube
(b) Pirani Gauge
(c) micro-manometer
(d) ionisastion gauge
(e) McLeod gauge.
Ans: d
97. Operation of McLeod gauge used for low
pressure measurement is based on the principle of
(a) gas law
(b) Boyle's law
(c) Charle's law
(d) Pascal's law
(e) McLeod's law.
Ans: b
98. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and
occupying 0.01 m3 volume will be completely
submerged in a fluid having specific gravity of
(a) 1
(b) 1.2
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.75
(e) 1.25.
Ans: d
99. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure
(a) decreases linearly with elevation
(b) remains constant
(c) varies in the same way as the density
(d) increases exponentially with elevation
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
100. Mercury is often used in barometer because
(a) it is the best liquid
(b) the height of barometer will be less
(c) its vapour pressure is so low that it may be
neglected
(d) both (b) and (c)
(e) it moves easily.
Ans: d
101. Barometer is used to measure
(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) rain level.
Ans: b
102. Which of the following instrument can be used
for measuring speed of a submarine moving in deep
sea
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.
Ans: e
103. Which of the following instrument can be used
for measuring speed of an aeroplane
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.
Ans: e
104. Piezometer is used to measure
(a) pressure in pipe, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressures
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) flow.
Ans: c
105. Which of the following instruments is used to
measure flow on the application of Bernoulli's
theorem
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) nozzle
(d) pitot tube
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
106. The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies
directly as its
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) absolute temperature,
Ans: e
107. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with
rise in temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(a) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
108. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with
rise in temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
109. A metal with specific gravity of o floating in a
fluid of same specific gravity a will
(a) sink to bottom
(b) float over fluid
(c) partly immersed
(d) be fully immersed with top surface at fluid
surface
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
110. Euler's dimensionless number relates the
following
(a) inertial force and gravity
(b) viscous force and inertial force
(c) viscous force and buoyancy force
(d) pressure force and inertial force
(e) pressure force and viscous force.
Ans: d
111. Manometer is used to measure
(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) velocity.
Ans: a
112. Which of the following manometer has highest
sensitivity
(a) U-tube with water
(b) inclined U-tube
(c) U-tube with mercury
(d) micro-manometer with water
(e) displacement type.
Ans: d
113. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube
manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle 9.
Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is
equal to
(a) sin 9
(b) sin 9
(c) cas 9
(d) cos 9
(e) tan 9.
Ans: b
114. Working principle of dead weight pressure
gauge tester is based on
(a) Pascal's law
(b) Dalton's law of partial pressure
(c) Newton's law of viscosity .
(d) Avogadro's hypothesis
(e) Second law of thermodynamic.
Ans: a
115. The resultant of all normal pressures acts
(a) at e.g. of body
(b) at center of pressure
(c) vertically upwards
(d) at metacentre
(e) vertically downwards.
Ans: c
116. Center of pressure compared to e.g. is
(a) above it
(b) below it.
(c) at same point
(d) above or below depending on area of body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
117. Metacentric height is the distance between the
metacentre and
(a) water surface
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of gravity
(d) center of buoyancy
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
118. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on
an immersed body due to its tendency to uplift the
sub-merged body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) reaction
(c) buoyancy
(d) metacentre
(e) center of pressure.
Ans: c
119. The center of pressure of a surface subjected
to fluid pressure is the point
(a) on the surface at which resultant pres-sure acts
(b) on the surface at which gravitational force acis
(c) at which all hydraulic forces meet
(d) similar to metacentre
(e) where pressure equivalent to hydraulic thrust
will act.
Ans: a
120. Buoyant force is
(a) the resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid
surrounding it
(c) equal to  the volume of liquid dis-placed
(d) the force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a
submerged body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
121. The horizontal component of buoyant force is
(a) negligible
(b) same as buoyant force
(c) zero
Ans: c
122.  The line of action of the buoyant force acts
through the
(a) centroid of the volume of fluid vertically above
the body
(b) centre of the volume of floating body
(c) center of gravity of any submerged body
(d) centriod of the displaced volume of fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
123. Center of buoyancy is the
(a) centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
(b) center of pressure of displaced volume
(c) e.g. of floating 'body
(d) does not exist
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
124. A body floats in stable equilibrium
(a) when its meatcentric height is zero
(b) when the metancentre is above e.g.
(c) when its e.g. is below it's center of buoyancy
(d) metacentre has nothing to do with position of
e.g. for determining stability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
125. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to
weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in water. Its specific
gravity is
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 6
Ans: d
126. The total pressure force on a plane area is
equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of
pressure at the centriod, if
(a) the area is horizontal
(b) the area is vertical
(c) the area is inclined
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
127. A square surface 3 m x 3 m lies in a vertical
line in water pipe its upper edge at water surface.
The hydrostatic force on square surface is
(a) 9,000 kg
(b) 13,500 kg
(c) 18,000 kg
(d) 27,000 kg
(e) 30,000 kg.
Ans: b
128. The depth of the center of pressure on a
vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 m high,
when the water surface coincides with the top of the
gate, is
(a) 2.4m
(b) 3.0 m
(c) 4.0 m
(d)"2.5 m
(e) 5.0 m.
Ans: b
129. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of
an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm", the pressure
at a depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be
(a) 2 meters of water column
(b) 3 meters of water column
(c) 5 meters of water column
(d) 6 meters of water Column
(e) 7 meters of water column.
Ans: d
130. Metacentre is the point of intersection of
(a) vertical upward force through e.g. of body and
center line of body
(b) buoyant force and the center line of body
(c) mid point between e.g. and center of buoyancy
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
131. Choose the wrong statement
(a) The horizontal component of the hydro-static
force on any surface is equal to the normal force on
the vertical projection of the surface
(b) The horizontal component acts through the
center of pressure for the vertical projection
(c) The vertical component of the hydrostatic force
on any surface is equal to the weight of the volume
of the liquid above the area
(d) he vertical component passes through the
center of pressure of the volume
(e) Center of pressure acts at a greater depth than
center of gravity.
Ans: d
132. For a body floating in a liquid the normal
pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
(a) bottom surface of the body
(b) e.g. of the body
(c) metacentre
(d) all points on the surface of the body
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
133. Choose the wrong statement
(a) any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is
acted upon by a buoyant force
(p) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid
displaced
(c) The point through which buoyant force acts, is
called the center of buoyancy
(d) Center of buoyancy is located above the center
of gravity of the displaced liquid v
(e) Relative density of liquids can be determined by
means of the depth of flotation of hydrometer.
Ans: d
134. According to the principle of buoyancy a body
totally or partially immersed in a fluid will be lifted
up by a force equal to
(a) the weight of the body
(b) more than the weight of the body
(c) less than the weight of the body
(d) weight of the fluid displaced by the body
(e) weight of body plus the weight of the fluid
displaced hy the body.
Ans: d
135. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced
slightly, it oscillates about
(a) e.g. of body
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) metacentre
(e) liquid surface.
Ans: d
136. Buoyant force is
(a) resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(c) force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
(d) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid
surrounding it
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
137. Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is
known as
(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold's number
(d) Weber's number
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
138. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at
10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity,
at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed
through water ?
(a) 10 m/sec
(b) 25 m/sec
(c) 2 m/sec
(d) 50 m/sec
(e) 250 m/sec.
Ans: c
139. A model of a reservior is drained in 4 mts by
opening the sluice gate. The model scale is 1: 225.
How long should it take to empty the prototype ?
(a) 900 minutes
(b) 4 minutes
(c) 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
(d) 4 (225)1/3 minutes
(e) 4 x V225 minutes.
Ans: e
140. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at
a velocity of 25 m/sec. The prototype is expected to
attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale has
been used ?
(a) 1 : 5
(b) 1 : 2.5
(c) 1 :25
(d) 1:V5"
(e) 1 : 53/2
Ans: a
141. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known
as
(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold's number
(d) Weber's number
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
142. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium,
its metacentre should be
(a) below the center of gravity
(b) below the center of buoyancy
(c) above the center of buoyancy
(d) between e.g. and center of pressure
(e) above the center of gravity.
Ans: e
143. For a floating body to be in equilibrium
(a) meta centre should be above e.g.
(b) centre of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same
vertical plane
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
144. The two important forces for a floating body
are
(a) buoyancy, gravity
(b) buoyancy, pressure
(c) buoyancy, inertial
(d) inertial, gravity
(e) gravity, pressure.
Ans: a
145. Choose the wrong statement
(a) The center of buoyancy is located at the center
of gravity of the displaced liquid
(b) For stability of a submerged body, the center of
gravity of body must lie directly below the center of
buoyancy
(c) If e.g. and center of buoyancy coincide, the
submerged body must lie at neutral equilibrium for
all positions
(d) For stability of floating cylinders or spheres, the
e.g. of body must lie below the center of buoyancy
(e) All floating bodies are stable.
Ans: e
146. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is
(a) at the centroid
(b) above the centroid
(c) below the centroid
(d) at metacentre
(e) at center of pressure.
Ans: c
147. An open vessel of water is accelerated up an
inclined plane. The free water surface will
(a) be horizontal
(b) make an angle in direction of inclination of
inclined plane
(c) make an angle in opposite direction to inclination
of inclined plane
(d) any one of above is possible
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
148. The line of action of the buoyant force acts
through the centroid of the
(a) submerged body
(b) volume of the floating body
(c) volume of the fluid vertically above the body
(d) displaced volume of the fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
149. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of
an immersed body acts through
(a) centre of gravity
(b) centre of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) centre of buoyancy
(e) in between e.g. and centre of pressure.
Ans: b
150. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid
displaced by an immersed body is called
(a) centre of gravity
(b) centre of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) centre of buoyancy
(e) centroid.
Ans: d
176. Differential monometer is used to measure
(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) velocity in pipes
Ans: d
177. The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp.
gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1 kg/cm".
The pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
(a) 2 metres of water column
(b) 3 metres of water column
(c) 3.5 metres of water column
(d) 4 m of water column
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
178. The time oscillation of a floating body with
increase in metacentric height will be
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) lower/higher depending on weight of body
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
179. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is
(a) at the centre of gravity
(b) above the centre of gravity
(c) below be centre of gravity
(d) could be above or below e.g. depend¬ing on
density of body and liquid
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
180. The normal stress is same in all directions at a
point in a fluid
(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is incompressible and has
zero viscosity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer
relative to an adjacent layer
(d) irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer
relative to an adjacent layer
(e) in case of an ideal fluid.
Ans: c
181. Select the correct statement
(a) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon
elevation of locality only
(b) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean
local atmospheric pressure a* sea level
(c) Local atmospheric pressure is always below
standard atmospheric pressure
(d) A barometer reads the difference be-tween local
and standard atmospheric pressure
(e) Gauge piessure is equal to atmospheric
pressure plus instrument reading.
Ans: b
184. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if should
be installed in
(a) vertical line
(b) horizontal line
(c) inclined line with flow downward
(d) inclined line with upward flow\
(e) in any direction and in any location.
Ans: e
185. Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed
vertically at a depth of 2 m below the free water
surface will be
(a) 1000 kg
(b) 4000 kg
(c) 2000 kg
(d) 8000 kg
(e)  16000 kg.
Ans: a
186. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure
(a) pressure in gases
(b) liquid discharge
(c) pressure in liquids
(d) gas velocities
(e) temperature.
Ans: d
187. Rotameter is a device used to measure
(a) absolute pressure
(b) velocity of fluid
(c) flow
(d) rotation
(e) velocity of air.
Ans: c
18 Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in
diameter can be measured by
(a) orifice plate
(b) venturi
(c) rotameter
(d) pitot tube
(e) nozzle
Ans: d
189. True one-dimensional flow occurs when
(a) the direction and magnitude of the veiocity at all
points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any
point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do
not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel
planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure etc. change from point
to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: a
190. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
(a) Pascal law
(b) Newton's law of viscosity
(c) boundary layer theory
(d) continuity equation
(e) Bernoulli's theorem.
Ans: d
191. In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the
acceleration of any fluid particle is
(a) constant
(b) variable
(c) zero
(d) zero under limiting conditions
(e) never zero.
Ans: c
193. Non uniform flow occurs when
(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all
points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid particles, at any
point, is the same at successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude aricf direction of the velocity do
not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel
planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point
to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: e
194. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the
flow is
(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) uniform
(d) laminar
(e) free vortex type.
Ans: b
195. Uniform flow occurs when
(a) the flow is steady
(b) the flow is streamline
(c) size and shape of the cross section in a
particular length remain constant
(d) size and cross section change uniformly along
length
(e) flow occurs at constant fate.
Ans: c
196. Gradually varied flow is
(a) steady uniform
(b) non-steady non-uniform
(c) non-steady uniform
(d) steady non-uniform
(e) true one-dimensional.
Ans: d
197. Steady flow occurs when
(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all
points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid particles, at any
point, is the same at successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do
not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel
planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point
to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: b
198. The flow which neglects changes in a
transverse direction is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: a
199. The flow in which each liquid particle has a
definite path and their paths do not cross each
other is called
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: e
200. The flow in which conditions do not change
with time at any point, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: c
201. The flow in which the velocity vector is
identical in magnitude and direction at every point,
for any given instant, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: b
202. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain
such velocities that vary from point to point in
magnitude and direction as well as from instant to
instant, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: d
210. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is
being opened is
(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) laminar
(d) vortex
(e) rotational.
Ans: b
211. General energy equation holds for
(a) steady flow
(b) turbulent flow
(c) laminar flow
(d) non-uniform flow
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
212. A streamline is defined as the line
(a) parallel to central axis flow
(b) parallel to outer surface of pipe
(c) of equal yelocity in a flow
(d) along which the pressure drop is uniform
(e) which occurs in all flows.
Ans: c
213. Two dimensional flow occurs when
(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all
points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid particles, at any
point, is the same at successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do
not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel
planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point
to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: d
215. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in
mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What fraction of its
volume is under mercury ?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.515
(d) 0.5
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
216. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in
water with 60% of its volume under the liquid. The
specific gravity of wood is
(a) 0.83
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.3
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
218. The velocity of jet of water travelling out of
opening in a tank filled with water is proportional to
(a) head of water (h)
(b) h2
(c) V/T
(d) h2
(e) h3/1.
Ans: c
219. In a free vortex motion, the radial component
of velocity everywhere is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero and finite
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
220. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow
everywhere within the fluid is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero finite
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d
221. The region between the separation streamline
and the boundary surface of the solid body is
known as
(a) wake
(b) drag
(c) lift
(d) boundary layer
(e) aerofoil section.
Ans: a
222. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is
(a) unity
(b) greater than unity
(c) greater than 2
(d) greater than 4
(e) greater than 10.
Ans: d
223. The upper surface of a weir over which water
flows is known is
(a) crest
(b) nappe
(c) sill
(d) weir top
(e) contracta.
Ans: c
224. Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth
of flow corresponding to
(a) steady flow
(b) unsteady flow
(c) laminar flow
(d) uniform flow
(e) critical flow.
Ans: d
226. Uniform flow occurs when
(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all
points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid paiticles, at any
point, is the same at successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do
not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel
planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in
each pleasure
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point
to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: c
227. Pitot tube is used for measurement of
(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) velocity
(d) dsscharge
(e) viscosity.
Ans: c
22 Hydrometer is used to determine
(a) specific gravity of liquids
(b) specific gravity of solids
(c) specific gravity of gases
(d) relative humidity
(e) density.
Ans: a
229. The total energy of each particle at various
places in the case of perfect incompres sible fluid
flowing in continuous sream
(d) keeps on increasing
(b) keeps on decreasing
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
230. According to Bernoulli's equation for steady
ideal fluid flow
(a) principle of conservation of mass holds
(b) velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
(c) total energy is constant throughout
(d) the energy is constant along a stream-line but
may vary across streamlines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
231. The  equation of continuity holds good when
the flow
(a) is steady
(b) is one dimensional
(c) velocity is uniform at all the cross sections
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
232. Mach number is significant in
(a) supersonics, as with projectiles and jet
propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as
with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where
there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity force,
and wave making effects, as with ship's hulls
(d) all of fhe above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
233. Froude number is significant in
(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as
with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where
there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces,
and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
234. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli's equation
have dimension of
(a) energy
(b) work
(c) mass
(d) length
(e) time.
Ans: d
235. Reynolds number is significant in
(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as
with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where
there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces,
and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
236.  The fluid forces considered in the Navier
Stokes equation are
(a) gravity, pressure and viscous
(b) gravity, pressure and turbulent
(c) pressure, viscous and turbulent
(d) gravity, viscous and turbulent
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
237. A large Roynold number is indication of
(a) smooth and streamline flow
(b) laminar flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) highly turbulent flow.
Ans: e
239. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Roynolds
number is
(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c) more than 4000
(d) less than 4000
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
240. In order that flow takes place between two
points in a pipeline, the differential pressure
between these points must be more than
(a) frictional force
(b) viscosity
(c) surface friction
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
241. At the center line of a pipe flowing under
pressure where the velocity gradient is zero, the
shear stress will be
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) negative value
(e) could be any value.
Ans: e
242. The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m
below the free surface of a body of water will be
equal to
(a) 1 Pa
(b) 91 Pa
(c) 981 Pa
(d) 9810 Pa
(e) 98,100 Pa.
Ans: d
244. Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent,
when the following quantites are same
(a) friction loss and flow
(b) length and diameter
(c) flow and length
(d) friction factor and diameter
(e) velocity and diameter.
Ans: a
245. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when
Reynolds number is
(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c). more than 4000
(d) less than 4000
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
246. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of
conservation of
(a) mass
(b) momentum
(c) energy
(d) work
(e) force.
Ans: c
247. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter
and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to lift a weight
of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal to
(a) 10 kg
(b) 100 kg
(c) 1000 kg
(d) 1 kg
(e) 10,000 kg.
Ans: a
248. Cavitation is caused by
(a) high velocity
(b) high pressure
(c) weak material
(d) low pressure
(e) low viscosity.
Ans: d
249. Cavitation will begin when
(a) the pressure at any location reaches an absolute
pressure equal to the saturated vapour pressure of
the liquid
(b) pressure becomes more than critical pressure
(c) flow is increased
(d) pressure is increased
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
250. Principle of similitude forms the basis of
(a) comparing two identical equipments
(b) designing models so that the result can be
converted to prototypes
(c) comparing similarity between design and actual
equipment
(d) hydraulic designs
(e) performing acceptance tests.
Ans: b
251. For similarity, in addition to models being
geometrically similar to prototype, the following in
both cases should also be equal
(a) ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
(b) ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
(c) ratio of inertial force to force due to surface
tension
(d) all the four ratios of inertial force to force due to
viscosity, gravitation, sur-face tension, and
elasticity
Ans: d

Compressors, Gas Turbines and Jet Engines - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers

Compressors, Gas
Turbines and Jet Engines -
Mechanical Engineering Multiple
choice Questions and Answers

1. Free air is the air at
(a) atmospheric conditions at any specific location
(b) 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 36%
(c) 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
(d) 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e) 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 50%.
Ans: a
2. Standard air is the air at
(a) atmospheric conditions at any specific location
(b) 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity 36%
(c) 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
(d) 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e) 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and RH of 60%.
Ans: b
3. 1 m of air at atmospheric condition weighs
approximately
(a) 0.5 kg
(b) 1.0 kg
(c) 1.3 kg
(d) 2.2 kg
(e) 3.2 kg.
Ans: c
4. Adiabatic compression is one in which
(a) temperature during compression remains
constant
(b) no heat leaves or enters the compressor
cylinder during cornpression
(c) temperature rise follows a linear relationship
(d) work done is maximum
(e) entropy decreases.
Ans: b
5. The capacity of a compressor is 5 m /mih. 5 m /
min refers to
(a) standard air
(b) free air
(c) compressed air
(d) compressed air at delivery pressure
(e) air sucked.
Ans: b
6. The overall isothermal eiffciency of compressor
is defined as the ratio of
(a) isothermal h.p. to the BHP of motor
(b) isothermal h.p. to adiabatic h.p.
(c) power to drive compressor to isothermal h.p.
(d) work to compress air isothermally to work for
actual compression
(e) isothermal work to ideal work.
Ans: a
7. The- most efficient method of compressing air is
to compress it
(a) isothermally
(b) adiabatically
(c) isentropically
(d) isochronically
(e) as per law pV
Ans: a
8. Maximum work is done in compressing air when
the compression is
(a) isothermal
(b) adiabatic
(c) polytropic
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
9. The pressure and temperature conditions of air at
the suction of compressor are
(a) atmospheric
(b) slightly more than atmospheric
(c) slightly less than atmospheric
(d) pressure slightly more than atmospheric and
temperature slightly less than atmospheric
(e) pressure sightly less than atmospheric and
temperature slightly more than atmospheric.
Ans: e
10. Isothermal compression effeicency can be
attained by running the compressor
(a) at very high speed
(b) at very slow speed
(c) at average speed
(d) at zero speed
(e) isothermally.
Ans: b
11. The compressor capacity with decrease in
suction temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) may increase or decrease depending on
compressor capacity
(e) increases upto certain limit and then decreases.
Ans: a
12. Isothermal compression efficiency, even when
running at high speed, can be approached by using
(a) multi-stage compression
(b) cold water spray
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) fully insulating the cylinder
(e) high stroke.
Ans: c
13. Compression efficiency is compared against
(a) ideal compression
(b) adiabatic compression
(c) botii isothermal and adiabatic compression
(d) isentropic compression
(e) isothermal compression.
Ans: e
14. Aeroplanes employ following type of
compressor
(a) radial flow
(b) axial flow
(c) centrifugal
(d) combination of above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
15. Inter cooling in compressors
(a) cools the delivered air
(b) results in saving of power in compressing a
given volume to given pressure
(c) is the standard practice for big compressors
(d) enables compression in two stages
(e) prevents compressor jacket running very hot.
Ans: b
16. An ideal air compressor cycle without clearance
on p-v diagram can be represented by following
processes
(a) one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant
volume
(b) two adiabatic and two isobaric
(c) two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant
volume
(d) one adiabatic, one isobaric  and two constant
volume
(e) two isobaric,  two adiabatic and one constant
volume.
Ans: a
17. An ideal air compressor cycle with clearance on
p-v diagram can be represented by following
processes
(a) one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant
volume
(b) two adiabatic and two isobaric
(c) two adiabatic, one isobaric  and one constant
volume,
(d) one adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant
volume
(e) two isobaric, two adiabatic and one constant
volume.
Ans: b
18. What will be the volume of air at 327°C if its
volume at 27°C is 1.5 m3/mt
(a)  3 m3/mt .
(b)  1.5 m3/mt
(c) 18 m3/mt'
(d)  6 m3/mt
(e)  0.75 m3/mt.
Ans: a
19. The work done per unit mass of air in
compression will'be least when n is equal to
(a) 1
(b) 1.2 ,
(c) 1.3
(d) 1.4
(e) 1.5
Ans: a
20. Isothermal compression though most efficient,
but is not -practicable because
(a) ityrequires very big cylinder
(b) it does not increase pressure much
(c) it is impossible in practice
(d) compressor has to run at very slow speed to
achieve it
(e) it requires cylinder to be placed in water.
Ans: d
21. Ratio of indicated H.P. and brake H.P. is known
as
(a) mechanical efficiency
(b) volumetric efficiency
(c) isothermal efficiency
(d) adiabatic efficiency
(e) relative efficiency.
Ans: a
22. The ratio of work doen per cycle to the swept
volume in case of compressor is called
(a) compression index
(b) compression ratio
(c) compressor efficiency
(d) mean effective pressure
(e) compressor effectiveness.
Ans: d
23. Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be
(a) as large as possible
(b) as small as possible
(c) about 50% of swept volume
(d) about 100% of swept volume
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
24. Ratio of compression is the ratio of
(a) gauge discharge pressure to the gauge intake
pressure
(b) absolute discharge pressure to the ab-solute
intake pressure
(c) pressures at discharge and suction cor-
responding to same temperature
(d) stroke volume and clearance volume
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
25. Clearance volume in actual reciprocating
compressors is essential
(a) to accommedate Valves in the cylinder head
(b) to provide cushioning effect
(c) to attain high volumetric efficiency
(d) to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder
head
(e) to provide cushioning effect and also to avoid
mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head.
Ans: e
26. The net work input required for compressor with
increase in clearance volume
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) increases/decreases depending on com-
pressor capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
27. Ratio of indicated h.p. to shaft h.p. in known as
(a) compressor efficiency
(b) isothermal efficiency
(c) volumetric efficiency
(d) mechanical efficiency
(e) adiabatic efficiency.
Ans: d
28. Volumetric efficiency is
(a) the ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
(b) the ratio of the air actually delivered to the
amount of piston displacement
(c) reciprocal of compression ratio
(d) index of compressor performance
(e) proportional to compression ratio.
Ans: b
29. Volumetric efficiency of air compressors is of
the order of
(a) 20-30%
(b) 40-50%
(c) 60-70%
(d) 70-90%
(e) 90-100%.
Ans: d
30. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor with
clearance volume
(a) increases with increase in compression ratio
(b) decreases with increase in compression ratio
(c) in not dependent upon compression ratio
(d) may increase/decrease depending  on
compressor capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
31. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor without
clearance volume
(a) increases with increase in compression ratio
(b) decreases with increase in compression ratio
(c) is not dependent upon compressin ratio
(d) may increase/decrease depending on
compressor capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
32. The clearance volume of the air compressor is
kept minimum because
(a) it allows maximum compression to be achieved
(b) it greatly affects volumetric efficiency
(c) it results in minimum work
(d) it permits isothermal compression
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
33. Euler's equation is applicable for
(a) centrifugal compressor
(b) axial compressor
(c) pumps
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
40. Out of the following, from where you will prefer
to take intake for air compressor
(a) from an air conditioned room maintained at 20°C
(b) from outside atmosphere at 1°C
(c) from coal yard side
(d) from a side where cooling tower is located
nearby
(e) from any one of the above locations.
Ans: d
41. Mining industry usually employs following
motive power
(a) A.C. electric motor
(b) compressed air
(c) petrol engine
(d) diesel engine
(e) D.C. electric motor.
Ans: b
42. Which is false statement about air receivers
(a) These are used to dampen pulsations ,
(b) These act as reservoir to- take care of sudden
demands
(c) These increase compressor efficiency
(d) These knock out some oil and moisture
(e) These reduce frequent on/off operation of
compressors.
Ans: c
44. An air receiver is to be placed outside. Should it
be placed in
(a) sun
(b) shade
(c) rain
(d) enclosed room
(e) anywhere.
Ans:
45. Which is false statement about multistage
compression .
(a) Power consumption per unit of air delivered is
low
(b) Volumetric efficiency is high
(c) It is best suited for compression ratios around
7:1
(d) The moisture in air is condensed in the
intercooler
(e) Outlet temperature is reduced.
Ans: b
46. In multistage compressor, the isothermal
compression is achieved by
(a) employing intercooler
(b) by constantly cooling the cylinder
(c) by running compressor at very slow speed
(d) by insulating the cylinder
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
47. Reciprocating air compressor is best suited for
(a) large quantity of air at high pressure
(b) small quantity of air at high pressure
(c) small quantity of air at low pressure
(d) large quantity of air at low pressure
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: a
48. Rotary compressor is best suited for
(a) large quantity of air at high pressure
(b) small quantity of air at high pressure
(c) small quantity of air at low pressure
(d) large quantity of air at low pressure
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b
49. The capacity of compressor will be highest
when its intake temperature is
(a) lowest
(b) highest
(c) anything.
(d) atmospheric
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
50. After-cooler is used to
(a) cool the air
(b) decrease the delivery temperature for ease in
handling
(c) cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
(d) reduce volume
(e) increase pressure.
Ans: c
51. To aviod moisture troubles, the compressed air
main line should
(a) rise gradually towards the point of use
(b) drop gradually towards the point of use
(c) be laid vertically
(d) be laid exactly horizontally
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
52. Separators in compressor installations are
located
(a) before intercooler
(b) after intercooler
(c) after receiver
(d) between after-cooler and air receiver
(e) before suction.
Ans: d
53. The area of actual indicator diagram on an air
compressor as compared to area of ideal indicator
diagram is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on compressor capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
54. An air compressor may be controlled by
(a) throttle control (b) clearance control
(c) blow-off control
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
55. The compressor efficiecny is the
(a) isothermal H.P/indicated H.R
(b) isothermal H.P./shaft H.R
(c) total output/air input
(d) compression work/motor input
(e) none Of the above.
Ans: a
56. To avoid moisture troubles, the branch
connections from compressed air lines should be
taken from
(a) top side of main
(b) bottom side of main
(c) left side of main
(d) right side of main
(e) any location.
Ans: a
57. The thrust on the rotor in a centrifugal
compressor is produced by
(a) radial component
(b) axial component
(c) tangential component
(d) resultant component
Ans: b
58. The compressor performance at higher altitude
compared to sea level will be
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) dependent on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
59. A compressor at high altitude will draw
(a) more power
(b) less power
(c) same power
(d) more/less power depending on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
60. During peak load periods, the best method of
controlling compressors is
(a) start-stop motor
(b) constant speed unloader
(c) relief valve
(d) variable speed
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
61. A centrifugal compressor works on the principle
of
(a) conversion of  pressure energy into kinetic
energy
(b) conversion of kinetic energy into pres¬sure
energy
(c) centripetal action
(d) generating pressure directly
(e) combination of (a) and (d).
Ans: b
62. For a compressor, least work will be done if the
compression is
(a) isentropic
(b) isothermal
(c) polytropic
(d) somewhere in between isentropic and
isothermal
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
67. In a compressor, free air delivered is the actual
volume delivered at the stated pressure reduced to
(d) N.T.P. conditions
(b) intake temperature and pressure conditions
(c) 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
(d) 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
68. The volumetirc efficiency of a compressor is
calculated on the basis of
(a) volume of air inhaled at working conditions
(b) volume of air inhaled at N.T.P. conditions
(c) volume at 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
(d) volume at 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
69. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls
roughly as follows for every 100 m increase in
elevation
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 1.0%
(d) 5%
(e) 10%.
Ans: c
70. For slow-speed large capacity compressor,
following type of valve will be best suited
(a) poppet valve
(b) mechanical valve of the corliss, sleeve, rotary or
semirotary type
(c) disc or feather type
(d) any of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
71. During base load operation, the best method of
controlling compressor is
(a) start-stop motor
(b) constant speed unloader
(c) relief valve
(d) variable speed
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
72. More than one stage will be preferred for
reciprocating compressor if the delivery pressure is
more than
(a) 2 kg/cm2
(b) 6 kg/cm2
(c) 10 kg/cm2
(d) 14.7 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
73. The advantage of multistage compression over
single stage compression is
(a) lower power consumption per unit of air
delivered
(b) higher volumetric efficiency
(c) decreased discharge temperature
(d) moisture free air
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
74. Pick up the wrong statement about advantages
of multistage compression
(a) better lubrication is possible advantages of
multistage
(b) more loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
(c) mechanical balance is better
(d) air can be cooled perfectly in between
(e) more uniform torque, light cylinder and saving in
work.
Ans: b
75. As the value of index '«' is decreased, the
volumetric efficiency will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) may increase/decrease depending on
compressor clearance
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
76. The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity
in case of centrifugal compressor is called
(a) slip factor
(b) velocity factor
(c) velocity coefficient
(d) blade effectiveness
Ans: a
79. Losses in a centrifugal compressor are due to
(a) inlet losses
(b) impeller channel losses
(c) diffuser losses
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
80. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls
roughly as follows for every 5°C increase in
atmospheric temperature
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 1%
(d) 5%
(e ) 10%.
Ans: c
81. The indicated work per unit mass of air
delivered is
(a) directly proportional to clearance volume
(b) greatly affected by clearance volume
(c) not affected by clearance volume
(d) inversely proportional to clearance volume
Ans: c
89. For actual single stage centrifugal compressor,
the maximum pressure ratio is of the order of
(a) 1 : 1.2
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 10
(e) 1 : 1
Ans:
90. Which is false statement about advantages of
multistage compressor in comparison to single
stage compressor
(a) less power requirement
(b) better mechanical balance
(c) less loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
(d) more effective lubrication
(e) lower volumetric efficiency.
Ans: e
91. The ratio of isentropic work to Euler work is
known as
(a) pressure coefficient
(b) work coefficient
(c) polytropic reaction
(d) slip factor
(e) compressor efficiency.
Ans: a
92. The criterion of the thermodynamic efficiency for
rotary compressor is
(a) isentropic compression
(b) isothermal compression
(c) polytropic compression
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
93. For supplying intermittent small quantity of air at
high pressure, following compressor is best suited
(a) centrifugal
(b) reciprocating
(c) axial
(d) screw
(e) turbo jet.
Ans: b
94. For minimum work in multistage compression,
assuming same index of compression in all stages
(a) work done in first stage should be more
(b) work done in subsequent stages should
increase
(c) work done in subsequent stages should
decrease
(d) work done in all stages should be equal
(e) work done in any stage is no criterion for
minimum work but depends on other factors.
Ans: d
95. For a two stage compressor* if index of
compression for higher stage is greater than index
of compression for lower stage, then the optimum
pressure as compared to ideal case will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) other factors control it
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
96. Diffuser in a compressor is used to
(a) increase velocity
(b) make the flow stream-line
(c) convert pressure energy into kinetic energy
(d) convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
(e) increase degree of reaction.
Ans: d
98. The ratio of isentropic work to euler's work is
known as
(a) compressor efficiency
(b) isentropic efficiency
(c) Euler's efficiency
(d) pressure coefficient
(e) pressure ratio.
Ans: d
99. The thermodynamic efficiency of rotary
compressor is based on
(a) isothermal compression
(b) adiabatic compression
(c) isentropic compression
(d) polytropic compression
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
100. Phenomenon of choking in compressor means
(a) no flow of air
(b) fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure
ratio
(c) reducing mass flow rate with increase in
pressure ratio
(d) increased inclination of chord with air steam
(e) does not occur.
Ans: b
101. The maximum compression ratio in an actual
single stage axial flow comperssor is of the order of
(a) 1 : 1.2
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 5
(d) 1 : 10
(e) 1 : 1
Ans: a
102. Maximum delivery pressure is a rotary air
compressor is of the order of
(a) 6 kg/cm2
(b) 10 kg/cm2
(c) 16 kg/cm2
(d) 25 kg/cm2
(e) 40 kg/cm2.
Ans: b
103. Surging is the phenomenon of
(a) air stream blocking the passage
(b) motion of air at sonic velocity
(c) unsteady, periodic and reversed flow
(d) air stream not able to follow the blade contour
(e) production of no air pressure.
Ans: c
104. Pick up wrong statement.
Surging phenomenon in centrifugal com-pressor
depends on
(a) mass flow rate
(b) pressure ratio
(c) change in load
(d) stagnation pressure at the outlet
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
105. The ratio of the increase in pressure in rotor
blades to total increase in pressure in the stage is
called
(a) pressure ratio
(b) pressure coefficient
(c) degree of reaction
(d) slip factor
(e) stage factor.
Ans: c
106. Axial flow compressor resembles
(a) centrifugal pump
(b) reciprocating pump
(c) turbine
(d) sliding vane compressor
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
107. Axial flow compressor has the following
advantage over centrifugal compressor
(a) larger air handling  ability  per unit frontal area
(b) higher pressure ratio per stage
(c) aerofoil blades are used
(d) higher average velocities
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
108. Actual compression curve is
(a) same as isothermal
(b) same as adiabatic
(c) better than isothermal and adiabatic
(d) in between isothermal and adiabatic
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
109. Atmospheric pressure is 1.03 kg/cm and
vapour pressure is 0.03 kg/cm . The air pressure
will be
(a) 1.03 kg/cm2
(b) 1.06 kg/cm2
(c) 1.00 kg/cm2
(d) 0.53 kg/cm2
(e) 0.5 kg/cm2.
Ans: c
110. The pressure ratio of an ideal vaned
compressor with increase in mass flow rate
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first decreases and then increases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
111. Rotary compressors are suitable for
(a) large discharge at high pressure
(b) low discharge at high pressure
(c) large discharge at low pressure
(d) low discharge at low pressure
(e) there is no such limitation.
Ans: c
112. The vloumetric efficiency of compressor with
increase in compression ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) may increase/decrease depending on clearance
volume
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
113. Stalling of blades in axial flow compressor is
the phenomenon of
(a) air stream blocking the passage
(b) motion of air at sonic velocity
(c) unsteady periodic and reversed flow
(d) air stream not able to follow the blade contour
(e) production of no air pressure.
Ans: d
114. Pick up the wrong statement
(a) centrifugal compressors deliver prac-tically
constant pressure over a considerable range of
capacities
(b) Axial flow compressors have a sub-stantially
constant delivery at variable pressures
(c) centrifugal compressors have a wider stable
operating range than axial flow compressors
(d) axial flow compressors are bigger in diameter
compared to centrifugal type
(e) axial flow compressors apt to be longer as
compared to centrifugal type.
Ans: d
115. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is defined
as the ratio of
(a) net work output and heat supplied (6) net work
output and work done by tur¬bine
(c) actual heat drop and isentropic heat drop
(d) net work output and isentropic heat drop
(e) isentropic increase/drop in tempera¬ture and
actual increase/ drop in temperature.
Ans: b
116. Gas turbine works on
(a) Brayton or Atkinson cycle
(b) Carnot cycle
(c) Rankine cycle
(d) Erricsson cycle
(e) Joule cycle.
Ans: a
117. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle
depends on
(a) pressure ratio
(b) maximum cycle temperature
(c) minimum cycle temperature
(d) all of the above
(e) none of die above.
Ans: d
118. The pressure ratio for an open cycle gas
turbine compared to closed cycle gas turbine of
same h.p. is
(a) low
(b) high
(c) same
(d) low/high depending on make and type
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
119. Open cycle gas turbine works on
(a) Brayton or Atkinson cycle
(6) Rankine cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) Erricsson cycle
(e) Joule cycle.
Ans: a
120.  The fuel consumption in gas turbines is
accounted for by
(a) low.er heating value
(b) higher heating value
(c) heating value
(d) higher calorific value
(e) highest calorific value.
Ans: a
121. Gas turbines for power generaion are normally
used
(a) to supply base load requirements
(b) to supply peak load requirements
(c) to enable start thermal power plant
(d) in emergency
(e) when other sources of power fail.
Ans: b
122. Mechanical efficiency of gas turbines as
compared to I.C engines is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) depends on on odier considerations
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
123. The ratio of specific weighf/h.p. of gas turbin
and I.C engines may be typically of the order of
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1:2
(e) 1 : 6.
Ans: e
124. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine as
compared to a diesel plant is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictably.
Ans: c
125. The air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is of the order
of
(a) 7 : 1
(b) 15 : 1
(c) 30 : 1
(d) 40 : 1
(e) 50: 1.
Ans: e
126. The pressure ratio in gas turbines is of the
order of
(a),2:l
(b)4:1
(c) 61: 1
(d) 9 : 1
(e) 12:1.
Ans: c
128. The hottest point in a gas turbine is
(a) at the base
(b) at the tip
(c) in the center
(d) between ~ to i of the blade height
(e) uniformly heated.
Ans: d
129. The following is true for an open cycle gas
turbine having exhaust heat exchanger.
Atmospheric air before entering the compressor is
(a) heated
(b) compressed air before entering the combustion
chamber is heated
(c) bled gas from turbine is heated and readmitted
for complete expansion
(d) exhaust gases drive the compressor
(e) part of exhaust gases are heated and mixed up
with atmospheric air to utilise exhaust heat.
Ans: b
130. Gas turbine blades are given a rake
(a) equal to zero
(b) in the direction of motion of blades
(c) opposite to the direction of motion of blades
(d) depending on the velocity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
131. Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by
(a) reheating
(b) inter cooling
(c) adding a regenerator
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
132. Temperature of gases at end of compression
as compared to exhaust gases in a gas turbine is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) equal
(d) can't be compared
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
133. The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle
depends on
(a) pressure ratio
(b) maximum cycle temperature
(c) minimum cycle temperature
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
134. The thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine
for a given turbine inlet temperature with increase
in pressure ratio
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) first decreases and then increases
(e) remains same.
Ans: a
135. Gas turbines use following type of air
compressor
(a) centrifugal type
(b) reciprocating type
(c) lobe type
(d) axial flow type
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
136. As the turbine inlet temperature increases, the
thermal efficiency of gas turbine for the optimum
pressure ratio
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: a
137. There is a certain pressure ratio (optimum) for
a gas turbine at which its thermal efficiency is
maximum. With increase in turbine temperature, the
value of pressure ratio for the peak efficiency would
(a) remain same
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
138. The material commonly used for air craft gas
turbine is
(a) stainless steel
(b) high alloy' steel
(c) duralumin
(d) Timken, Haste and Inconel allpys
(e) titanium.
Ans: d
139. It is not possible to use closed gas turbine
cycle in aeronautical engines because
(a) it is inefficient
(b) it is bulky
(c) it requires cooling water for its operation
Ans: c
140. The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine
using perfect combustion chamber is of the order of
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 85%
(d) 90%
(e ) 99%.
Ans: e
141. The jnaximum combustion pressure in gas
turbine as compared to I.C. engine is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
142. For an irreversible gas turbine cycle, the
efficiency and work ratio both depend on
(a) pressure ratio alone
(b) maximum cycle temperature alone
(c) minimum cycle temperature alone
(d) both pressure ratio and maximum cycle
temperature
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
143. Producer gas is produced by
(a) carbonisation of coal
(b) passing steam over incandescent coke
(c) passing air and a large amount of steam over
waste coal at about 65°C
(d) partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal
or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
(e) same way as the natural gas.
Ans: d
144. Water gas is produced by
(a) carbonisation of coal
(b) passing steam over incandescent coke
(c) passing air and a large amount of steam over
waste coal at about 65°C
(d) partial combustion of caol, eke, anthractie coal
or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
(e) same way as the natural gas.
Ans: b
14 Water is injected in gas turbine cycle to
(a) control temperature
(b) control output of turbine
(c) control fire hazards
(d) increase efficiency
(e) it is never done.
Ans: b
146. A gas turbine used in air craft should have
(a) high h.p. and low weight
(b) low weight and small frontal area
(c) small frontal area and high h.p.
(d) high speed and high h.p.
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b
148. The closed cycle in gas turbines
(a) provides greater flexibility
(b) provides lesser flexibility
(c) in never used
(d) is used when gas is to be burnt
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
149. In the axial flow gas turbine, the work ratio is
the ratio of
(a) compressor work and turbine work
(b) output and input
(c) actual total head tempeature drop to the
isentrpic total head drop from total head inlet to
static head outlet
(d) actual compressor work and theoretical
comprssor work
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
150. The degree of reaction of an axial flow turbine
is the ratio of isentropic temperature drop in a blade
row to the
(a) adiabatic temperature drop in the stage
(b) total temperature drop
(c) total temperature drop in the stage
(d) total adiabaitc temperature drop
(e) difference of maximum and minimum
temperature in the cycle.
Ans: c
153. If infinite number of heaters be used in a gas
turbine, then expansion process in turbine
approaches
(a) isothermal
(b) isentropic
(c) adiabatic
(d) isochoric
(e) isobaric.
Ans: a
154. Pick up the correct statement
(a) gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to economise
on fuel
(b) gas turhine uses high air-fuel ratio to reduce
outgoing temperature
(c) gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to develop the
high thrust required
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
15 Intercooling in gas turbine results in
(a) increase in net output but decrease in thermal
efficiency
(b) increase in thermal  efficiency but decrease
in net output
(c) increase in both thermal efficiency and net
output
(d) decrease in both thermal efficiency and net
output
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
156. If V, U and Vr represent the absolute velocity
of fluid, velocity of blade, and relative velocity of
fluid, and suffix i and o stand for entry and exit
conditions, then in a rotary machine whose degree
of reaction is unity
(a)Vi=V0
(b)Vt>V0
(c) U,<V0
(d)V,= U0
(e) Vri=Vm.
Ans: a
157. Pick up the wrong statement
(a) large gas turbines employ axial flow
compressors
(b) axial flow compressors are more stable than
centrifugal type compressors but not as efficient
(c) axial flow compressors have high capacity and
efficiency
(d) axial flow compressors have instability
region of operation
(e) centrifugal compressors are used mainly on low
flow pressure ratio gas turbines.
Ans: b
158. The power available for take off and climb in
case of turbojet engine as compared to
reciprocating engine is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) may be less or more depending on ambient
conditons
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
159. Pick up the correct statement
(a) large gas turbines use radial inflow turbines
(b) gas turbines have their blades similar to steam
turbine
(c) gas .turbine's blade will appear as impulse
section at the hub and as a reaction section at tip
(d) gas turbines use both air and liquid cooling
(e) all of the above are correct.
Ans: c
160. A closed gas turbine in which fuel is burnt
directly in the air is not possible because of
(a) high pressure ratio
(b) increasing gas temperature
(c) high specific volume
(d) high friction losses
(e) paucity of 02.
Ans: e