123 TOP D.C. Motors - Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Latest D.C. Motors Interview Questions and Answers List

1. No-load speed of which of the following motor will
be highest ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor
Ans: b
2. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor
can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
3. Which of the following application requires high
starting torque ?
(a) Lathe machine
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Locomotive
(d) Air blower
Ans: c
4. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors,
which rriotor would be preferred ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Differentially compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: a
5. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine
tools ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
6. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find
applications requiring
(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) variable speed
(d) frequent on-off cycles
Ans: b
7. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: d
8. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, when the
forefinger points in the direction of the field or flux,
the middle finger will point in the direction of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor
(c) resultant force on conductor
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened
while motor is running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
(c)  the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed
Ans: c
10. Starters are used with D.C. motors because
(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self-starting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back
e.m.f. while starting
Ans: d
11. In D.C.  shunt motors as load is reduced
(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction
in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant
(d) the speed will reduce
Ans: c
12. A D.C. series motor is that which
(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and
less turns
(b) has a poor torque
(c) can be started easily without load
(d) has almost constant speed
Ans: a
13. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required
because
(a) it limits the speed of the motor
(b) it limits the starting current to a safe value
(c) it starts the motor
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
14. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and
punches is
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) differential compoutid D.C. motor
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor
Ans: d
15. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C.
supply it will
(a) run at normal speed
(b) not run
(c) run at lower speed
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by
.eddy currents
Ans: d
16. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal
without wastage of electrical energy is used.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) rheostatic control
(c) any of the above method
(d) none of the above method
Ans: a
17. When two D.C. series motors are connected in
parallel, the resultant speed is
(a) more than the normal speed
(b) loss than the normal speed
(c) normal speed
(d) zero
Ans: c
18. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its
full-load speed can be obtained by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current
Ans: a
19. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is
(a) independent of armature current
(b) directly proportional to  the armature current
(c) proportional to the square of the current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: a
20. A direct on line starter is used: for starting
motors
(a) up to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
21. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C.
motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Ans: c
22. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is
dependent on back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Ans: d
23. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of
maximum power, the current in the armature will be
(a) almost negligible
(b) rated full-load current
(c) less than full-load current
(d) more than full-load current
Ans: d
24. These days D.C. motors are widely used in
(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(c) electric traction
(d) machine shops
Ans: c
25. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be
easily confirmed that a particular motor is D.C.
motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Ans: c
26. In which of the following applications D.C. series
motor is invariably tried?
(a) Starter for a car
(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor operation in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
27. In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used
(a) to improve cooling
(b) to reduce copper losses
(c) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(d) to reduce the sparking
Ans: d
28. A three point starter is considered suitable for
(a) shunt motors
(b) shunt as well as compound motors
(c) shunt, compound and series motors
(d) all D.C. motors
Ans: b
29. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a
D.C. motor are established, the efficiency of the
motor will be
(a) 100%
(b) around 90%
(c) anywhere between 75% and 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
30. The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is
least in case of
(a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
32. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain
the maximum temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
33. Which of the following law/rule can he used to
determine the direction of rotation of D.C. motor ?
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's law
(c) Coloumb's law
(d) Fleming's left-hand rule
Ans: d
34. Which of the following load normally needs
starting torque more than the rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
(d) Centrifugal pumps
Ans: b
35. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is
generally
(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large
Ans: a
36. The speed of a D.C. series motor is
(a) proportional to the armature current
(b) proportional to the square of the armature
current
(c) proportional to field current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: d
37. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is
reduced by 50%, the torque of the motor will be
equal
to
(a) 100% of the previous value
(b) 50% of the previous value
(c) 25% of the previous value
(d) 10% of the previous value
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
38. The current drawn by the armature of D.C.
motor is directly proportional to
(a) the torque required
(b) the speed of the motor
(c) the voltage across the terminals
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
39. The power mentioned on the name plate of an
electric motor indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft
Ans: d
40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading
property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded 'motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: d
41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable along with
flywheel for intermittent light and heavy loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: c
42. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if
shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to the motor
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current,
possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly
destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses (d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
43. D.C. series motors are used
(a) where load is constant
(b) where load changes frequently
(c) where constant operating speed is needed
(d) in none of the above situations.
Ans: d
44. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed,
following motor has poor starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) differentially compounded
(d) cumulativelyc'ompounded
Ans: c
45. In case of conductively compensated D.C.
series motors, the compensating winding is
provided
(a) as separately wound unit
(6) in parallel with armature winding
(c) in series with armature winding
(d) in parallel with field winding
Ans: c
46. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may
result in
(a) damage to commutator segments
(b) damage to commutator insulation
(c) increased power consumption
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
47. Which of the following motor is preferred for
operation in highly explosive atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
(d) Battery operated motor
Ans: c
48. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is
increased, which of the following will decrease ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
(c) Full-load current
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
49. Which one of the following is not the function of
pole shoes in a D.C. machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better uniformity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
Ans: a
50. The mechanical power developed by a shunt
motor will be maximum when the ratio of back
e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
51. The condition for maximum power in case of
D.C. motor is
(a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
(b) back e.m.f. = | x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = | x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
Ans: b
52. For which of the following applications a D.C.
motor is preferred over an A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: c
53. In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is of
the order of
(a) 2 to 3 per cent
(6) 10 to 15 per cent
(c) 20 to 25 per cent
(d) 50 to 75 per cent
Ans: a
54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for
cranes and hoists ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: a
55. Three point starter can be used for
(a) series motor only
(b) shunt motor only
(c) compound motor only
(d) both shunt and compound motor
Ans: d
56. Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor
because
(a) it increases the input power con-sumption
(b) commutator gets damaged
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
57. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives
uniform speed variation
(a) in one direction
(b) in both directions
(c) below normal speed only
(d) above normal speed only.
Ans: b
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to
reduce the peak demand by the motor, compound
motor will have
to be
(a) level compounded
(b) under compounded
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) differentially compounded
Ans: c
59. Following motor is used where high starting
torque and wide speed range control is required.
(a) Single phase capacitor start
(b) Induction motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
60. In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if
shunt field suddenly opens
(a) the motor will first stop and then run in opposite
direction as series motor
(b) the motor will work as series motor and run at
slow speed in the same direction
(c) the motor will work as series motor and run at
high speed in the same direction
(d) the motor will not work and come to stop
Ans: a
61. Which of the following motor has the poorest
speed regulation ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: b
62. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require
high starting torque and therefore make use of
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) all of above motors
Ans: a
63. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C.
shunt motor will
(a) reduce slightly
(b) increase slightly
(c) increase proportionately
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: a
64. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is
proportional to
(a) field flux only
(b) armature current only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
65. Which of the following method of speed control
of D.C. machine will offer minimum efficiency ?
(a) Voltage control method
(b) Field control method
(c) Armature control method
(d) All above methods
Ans: c
66. Usually wide and sensitive speed control is
desired in case of
(a) centrifugal pumps
(b) elevators
(c) steel rolling mills
(d) colliery winders
Ans: d
67. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at
no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The speed
regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
68. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor
provides
(a) constant torque drive
(b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant current drive
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
69. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of
starting a D.C. motor, in order to prevent a heavy
current from flowing though the armature circuit
(a) a resistance is connected in series with
armature
(b) a resistance is connected parallel to the
armature
(c) armature is temporarily open circuited
(d) a high value resistor is connected across the
field winding
Ans: a
70. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be
increased by
(a) increasing the resistance in armature circuit
(b) increasing the resistance in field circuit
(c) reducing the resistance in the field circuit
(d) reducing the resistance in the armature circuit
Ans: b
71. If I2 be the armature current, then speed of a
D.C. shunt motor is
(a) independent of Ia
(b) proportional to la
(c) varies as (Ia)
(d) varies as la
Ans: a
72. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C.
motor are doubled, the torque developed by the
motor will
(a) remain unchanged
(6) reduce to one-fourth value
(c) increase four folds
(d) be doubled
Ans: a
73. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is
put on supply, it behaves like
(a) a highly resistive circuit
(6) a low resistance circuit
(c) a capacitive circuit
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
74. The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied by
varying
(a) field current
(b) applied voltage
(c) resistance in series with armature
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
75. Which one of the following is not necessarily the
advantage of D.C. motors over A.C. motors ?
(a) Low cost
(b) Wide speed range
(c) Stability
(d) High starting torque.
Ans: a
76. For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation is
changed
(a) torque will remain constant
(b) torque will change but power will remain
constant
(c) torque and power both will change
(d) torque, power and speed, all will change
Ans: b
77. Which motor has the poorest speed control?
(a) Differentially compounded motor
(b) Cumulatively compounded motor
(c) Shunt motor
(d) Series motor
Ans: d
78. The plugging gives the
(a) zero torque braking
(b) smallest torque braking
(c) highest torque braking
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
79. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor
provides
(a) constant voltage drive
(b) constant current drive
(c) constant torque drive
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
80. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient
temperature is to be used for 50°C ambient
temperature, then the motor
(a) of lower H.P. should be selected
(6) of higher H.P. should be selected
(c) can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
(d) is to be derated by a factor recommended by
manufacturer and select the next higher H.P. motor
Ans: d
81. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are
interchanged, this action will offer following kind of
braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
(d) none of the above
(e) any of the above
Ans: b
82. Which of the following motors one will choose to
drive the rotary compressor ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: d
83. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased,
the back e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
84. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction
applications ?
(a) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to
armature current
(b) Torque is proportional to armature current
(c) Torque is proportional to square root of
armature current
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque
and the torque is proportional to square of armature
current
Ans: d
85. Which of the following motors is usually used in
house-hold refrigerators ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Single phase induction motor (split phase start or
induction run motor)
(d) Reluctance motor
(e) Synchronous motor
Ans: c
86. Which of the following motors is most suitable
for signalling devices and many kinds of timers ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: d
87. Which motor should not be started on no-load ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor.
Ans: a
88. Ward-Leonard control is basically a
(a) voltage control method
(b) field divertor method
(c) field control method
(d) armature resistance control method
Ans: a
89. For constant torque drive which speed control
method is preferred ?
(a) Field control
(b) Armature voltage control
(c) Shunt armature control
(d) Mechanical loading system
Ans: b
90. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of
speed is imposed by
(a) residual magnetism of the generator
(b) core losses of motor
(c) mechanical losses of motor and generator
together
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
91. The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard
control method is
(a) high initial cost
(b) high maintenance cost
(c) low efficiency at Hght loads
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
92. Regenerative method of braking is based on
that
(a) back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(b) back e.m.f. is equal to the applied voltage
(c) back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the applied
voltage
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
93. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least
depends on
(a) Frequency of magnetic reversals
(b) Maximum value of flux density
(c) Volume and grade of iron
(d) Rate of flow of ventilating air
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be
the effects of iron losses except
(a) Loss of efficiency
(b) Excessive heating of core
(c) Increase in terminal voltage
(d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air
Ans: c
95. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are
given below. Which loss is likely to have highest
proportion at rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) field copper loss
(c) armature copper loss
(d) eddy current loss
Ans: c
96. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator
varies significantly with the load current ?
(a) Field copper loss
(b) Windage loss
(c) Armature copper loss
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
97. Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends
upon
(a) magnetic field
(b) active length of the conductor
(c) current flow through the conductors
(d) number of conductors
(e) radius of armature
(f) all above factors
Ans: f
98. D.C. shunt motors are used for driving
(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
(d) machine tools
Ans: d
99. In a manual shunt motor starter
(a) over load relay is connected in series and no
volt relay in parallel with the load
(6) over load relay is connected in parallel and no
volt relay in series with the load
(c) over load relay and no volt relay are both
connected in series with the load
(d) over load relay and no volt relay are both
connected in parallel with the load
Ans: a
100. Which of the following steps is likely to result
in reduction of hysteresis loss in a D.C. generator ?
(a) Providing laminations in armature core
(b) Providing laminations in stator
(c) Using non-magnetic material for frame
(d) Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for
armature core material
Ans: d
101. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator
is dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
102. Which of the following losses are significantly
reduced by laminating the core of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Hysteresis losses
(b) Eddy current losses
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses
Ans: b
103. The total losses in a well designed D.C.
generator of 10 kW will be nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b
104. The condition for maximum efficiency for a
D.C. generator is
(a) eddy current losses = stray losses
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(c) copper losses = 0
(d) variable losses = constant losses
Ans: d
105. D.C. generators are normally designed for
maximum efficiency around
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
106. In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take
place in
(a) yoke
(b) commutator
(c) armature conductors
(d) armature rotor
Ans: d
107. D.C. generators are installed near the load
centres to reduce
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses
Ans: b
108. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt
machines is to find out
(a) stray losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) field copper losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
109. Which of the following tests will be suitable for
testing two similar D.C. series motors of large
capacity ?
(a) Swinburne's test
(b) Hopkinson's test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test
Ans: c
110. Hopkinson's test on D.C. machines is
conducted at
(a) no-load
(b) part load
(c) full-load
(d) overload
Ans: c
111. During rheostat braking of D.C. series motors
(a) motor is run as a generator
(b) motor is reversed in direction
(c) motor is run at reduced speed
Ans: a
112. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic
braking is generally used ?
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
113. Which method of braking is generally used in
elevators ?
(a) Plugging
(b) Regenerative braking
(c) Rheostatic braking
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
114. In variable speed motor
(a) a stronger commutating field is needed at low
speed than at high speed
(b) a weaker commutating field is needed at low
speed than at high speed
(c) same commutating field is needed at low speed
than at high speed
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: b
115. When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates,
e.m.f. induced is
(a) self-induced e.m.f.
(b) mutually induced e.m.f.
(c) back e.m.f.
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
116. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires
frequent starting, stopping, reversing and speed
control
(a) drum type controller is used
(b) three point starter is used
(c) four point starter is used
(d) all above can be used
Ans: a
117. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and
if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) this will make armature to take heavy current,
possibly burning it
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly
destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses
(c) nothing will happen to motor
(d) motor will come to stop
Ans: a
118. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain
minimum value for most of the time and some peak
value for short
duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
119. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost
nil for certain part of the load cycle and peak value
for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
120. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self
relieving property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: a
121. In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur in
(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator
Ans: b
122. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to
be more than full load speed. This is possible by
(a) reducing the field current
(b) decreasing the armature current
(c) increasing the armature current
(d) increasing the excitation current
(e) none of the above methods
Ans: a
123. One D.C. motor drives another D.C. motor. The
second D.C. motor when excited and driven
(a) runs as a generator
(b) does not run as a generator
(c) also runs as a motor comes to stop after
sometime
Ans: a

Industrial Engineering - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers

Industrial Engineering -
Mechanical Engineering Multiple
choice Questions and Answers

1. A graphical device used to determine the break-
even point and profit potential under varying
conditions of output and costs, is known as
(a) Gnatt chart
(b) flow chart
(c) break-even chart
(d) PERT chart
(e) Taylor chart.
Ans: c
2. Break-even analysis consists of
(a) fixed cost
(b) variable cost
(c) fixed and variable costs
(d) operation costs
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
3. Break-even analysis shows profit when
(a) sales revenue > total cost
(b) sales revenue = total cost
(c) sales revenue < total cost
(d) variable cost < fixed cost
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
4. In braek-even analysis, total cost consists of
(a) fixed cost
(b) variable cost
(c) fixed cost + variable cost
(d) fixed cost + variable cost + over-heads
(e) fixed cost + sales revenue.
Ans: a
5. The break-even point represents
(a) the most economical level of operation of any
industry
(b) the time when unit can run without i loss and
profit
(c) time when industry will undergo loss
(d) the time when company can make maximum
profits
(e) time for overhauling a plant.
Ans: c
9. In the cost structure of a product, the selling
price is determined by the factors such as1
(a) sales turn over
(b) lowest competitive price
(c) various elements of the cost
(d) buyers' capability to pay
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
10. Work study is concerned with
(a) improving present method and finding
standard time
(b) motivation of workers
(c) improving production capability
(d) improving production planning and control
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
11. Basic tool in work study is
(a) graph paper
(b) process chart
(c) planning chart
(d) stop watch
(e) analytical mind.
Ans: d
12. What does symbol 'O' imply in work study
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) transport
(d) delay temporary storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
15. What does symbol 'D' imply in work study
(a) inspection
(b) transport
(c) delay temporary storage
(d) permanent storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
16. In perpetual inventory control, the material is
checked as it reaches its
(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) middle value
(e) alarming value.
Ans: a
17. Material handling in automobile industry is done
by
(a) overhead crane
(b) trolley
(c) belt conveyor
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
18. String diagram is used when
(a) team of workers is working at a place
(b) material handling is to be done
(c) idle time is to be reduced
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
20. Work study is most useful
(a) where production activities are involved
(b) in judging the rating of machines
(c) in improving industrial relations
(d) in judging the output of a man and improving it
(e) where men are biggest contributor to success of
a project.
Ans: a
21. Micromotion study is
(a) enlarged view of motion study
(b) analysis of one stage of motion study
(c) minute and detailed motion study
(d) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and
their analysis
(e) motion study of small components upto
mircoseconds.
Ans: d
22. In micromotion study, therblig is described by
(a) a symbol
(b) an event
(c) an activity
(d) micro motions
(e) standard symbol and colour.
Ans: e
23. The allowed time for a job equals standard time
plus
(a) policy allowance
(b) interference allowance
(c) process allowance
(d) learning allowance
(e) unforeseen allowance.
Ans: a
24. Micromotion study involves following number of
fundamental hand motions
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 20
(e) 24.
Ans: c
25. The standard time for a job is
(a) total work content
(b) basic time + relaxation time
(c) total work content + basic time
(d) total work content + delay contigency allowance
(e) total work content + relaxation time.
Ans: d
27. Work study is done with the help of
(a) process chart
(b) material handling
(c) stop watch
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
28. Scheduling gives information about
(a) when work should start and how much work
should be completed during a certain period
(b) when work should complete
(c) that how idle time can be minimised
(d) prcper utilisation of machines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
29. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch
on
(a) operator's activity
(b) flow of material and in case of trouble locate
source of trouble
(c) minimising the delays
(d) making efficient despatching
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
30. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used
to
(a) determine overhead expenses
(b) provide a basis for setting piece prices or
incentive wages
(c) determine standard costs
(d) determine the capability of an operator to handle
the number of machines
(e) compare alternative methods.
Ans: a
31. Job evaluation is the method-of determining the
(a) relative worth of jobs
(b) skills required by a worker
(c) contribution of a worker
(d) contribution of a job
(e) effectiveness of various alternatives.
Ans: a
32. Micromotion study is
(a) analysis of a man-work method by using a
motion picture camera with a timing device in the
field of view
(b) motion study observed on enhanced time
intervals
(c) motion study of a sequence of operations
conducted systematically
(d) study of man and machine conducted
simultaneously
(e) scientific, analytical procedure for determining
optimum work method.
Ans: a
33. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found
by
(a) work sampling
(b) time study
(c) method study
(d) work study
(e) ABC analysis.
Ans: a
34. TMU in method time measurement stands for
(a) time motion unit
(b) time measurement unit
(c) time movement unit
(d) technique measurement unit
(e) time method unit.
Ans: b
35. Time study is
(a) the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of
work involving human effort
(b) machine setting time
(c) time taken by workers to do a job
(d) method of fixing time for workers
(e) method of determining the personnel
Requirement.
Ans: a
36. Work sampling observations are taken on the
basis of
(a) detailed calculations
(b) convenience
(c) table of random numbers
(d) past experience
(e) fixed percentage of daily production.
Ans: c
38. One time measurement unit(TMU) in method
time measurement system equals
(a) 0.0001 minute
(b) 0.0006 minute
(c) 0.006 minute
(d) 0.001 minute
(e) 0.06 minute.
Ans: b
39. Basic motion time study gives times for basic
motions in ten thousandths of
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
40. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is
used for
(a) improving a work method
(b) improvising a work method
(c) designing a work method
(d) providing a schematic framework
(e) reducing inventory costs.
Ans: e
41. Gnatt chart provides information about the
(a) material handling
(b) proper utilisation of manpower
(c) production schedule
(d) efficient working of machine
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c
42. ABC analysis deals with
(a) analysis of process chart
(b) flow of material
(c) ordering schedule of job
(d) controlling inventory costs money
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
43. Process layout is employed for
(a) batch production
(b) continuous type of product
(c) effective utilisation of machines
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
44. For a product layout the material handling
equipment must
(a) have full flexibility
(b) employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
(c) be a general purpose type
(d) be designed as special purpose for a particular
application
(e) arranging shops according to specialisation of
duties.
Ans: d
45. Travel charts provide
(a) an idea of the flow of materials at various stages
(b) a compact estimate of the handling which must
be done between various work sections
(c) the information for changes required in
rearranging material handling equipment
(d) an approximate estimate of the handling which
must be done at a particular station
(e) solution to handling techniques to achieve
most optimum results.
Ans: b
46. Product layout is employed for
(a) batch production
(b) continuous production1
(c) effective utilization of machine
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
48. The process layout is best suited where
(a) specialisation exists
(b) machines are arranged according to sequence of
operation
(c) few number of nonstandardised units are to be
produced
(d) mass production is envisaged
(e) bought out items are more.
Ans: c
49. A low unit cost can be obtained by following
(a) product layout
(b) functional layout
(c) automatic material handling equipment
(d) specialization of operation
(e) minimum travel time plan and compact layout.
Ans: a
50. Military organisation is known as
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
51. The main disadvantage of line organisation is
(a) top level executives have to do excessive work
(b) structure is rigid
(c) communication delays occur
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
52. The main advantage of line organisation is its
(a) effective command and control
(b) defined responsibilities at all levels
(c) rigid discipline in the organisation
(d) ability of quick decision at all levels
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
53. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of
working known as
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) effective organisation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
54. The salient feature of functional organisation is
(a) strict adherence to specification
(b) separation of planning and design part
(c) each individual maintains functional efficiency
(d) work is properly planned and distributed
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
55. The most popular type of organisation used for
Civil Engineering Constructions is
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) effective organisation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
56. Templates are used for
(a) a planning layout
(b) flow of material
(c) advancing a programme in automatic machines
(d) copying complicated profiles
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
57. In steel plant the most important system for
materials handling is
(a) conveyors
(b) cranes and hoists
(c) trucks
(d) locos
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
58. Routing prescribes the
(a) flow of material in the plant
(b) proper utilization of man power
(c) proper utilization of machines
(d) inspection of final product
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
59. Queuing theory deals with problems of
(a) material handling
(b) reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme
(c) better utilization of man services
(d) effective use of machines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
60. Standard time is defined as
(a) normal time + allowances
(b) normal time + idle time + allowances
(c) normal time + idle time
(d) only normal time for an operation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
61. Father of industrial engineering is
(a) Jeck Gilberth
(b) Gnatt
(c) Taylor
(d) Newton
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
62. The grouping of activities into organisational
units is called
(a) corporate plans
(b) higher level management
(c) functional authority
(d) departmentatidn
(e) company policy.
Ans: d
63. Which of the following organisation is preferred
in automobile industry
(a) functional organisation
(b) line organisation
(c) staff organisation
(d) line and staff organisations
(e) scalar organisation.
Ans: d
64. Which of the following organisations is best
suited for steel plants
(a) functional organisation
(b) line organisation
(c) staff organisation
(d) line, staff and functional organisations
(e) scalar organisation.
Ans: a
65. The wastage of material in the store is taken
into account by the following method in the
evaluation of the material issued from the store
(a) inflated system
(b) primary cost method
(c) current value method
(d) fixed price method
(e) variable price method.
Ans: a
66. Which of the following is independent of sales
forecast
(a) productivity
(b) inventory control
(c) production planning
(d) production control
(e) capital budgeting.
Ans: a
67. Gnatt charts are used for
(a) forecasting sales
(b) production schedule
(c) scheduling and routing
(d) linear programming
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
68. Inventory management consists of
(a) effective running of stores
(b) state of merchandise methods of strong and
maintenance etc.
(c) stock control system
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
69. Gnatt charts provide information about
(a) break even point analysis
(b) production schedule
(c) material handling layout
(d) determining selling price
(e) value analysis.
Ans: b
70. Inventory control in production, planning and
control aims at
(a) achieving optimisation
(b) ensuring against market fluctuations
(c) acceptable customer service at low capital
investment in inventory
(d) discounts allowed in bulk purchase
(e) regulate supply and demand.
Ans: c
71. In inventory control, the economic order quantity
is the
(a) optimum lot size
(b) highest level of inventory
(c) lot corresponding to break-even point
(d) capability of a plant to produce
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
72. Statistical quality control techniques are based
on the theory of
(a) quality
(b) statistics
(c) probability
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
73. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute
is
(a) management
(b) labour court
(c) high court/supreme court
(d) board of directors
(e) president.
Ans: c
74. Under the Apprenticeship Act
(a) all industries have to necessarily train the
apprentices
(b) industries have to train apprentices ac-cording
to their requirement
(c) all industries employing more than 100 workers
have to recruit apprentices
(d) only industries employing more than 500
workers have to recruit apprentices
(e) all industries other than small scale industries
have to train apprentices.
Ans: d
75. Standing orders which are statutory are
applicable to
(a) all industries
(b) all process industries and thermal power plants
(c) only major industries
(d) only key industries
(e) all industries employing more than 100 workers.
Ans: e
76. Acceptance sampling is widely used in
(a) batch production
(b) job production
(c) mass production
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
77. The technique of value analysis can be applied
to
(a) complicated items only
(b) simple items only
(c) crash-programme items only
(d) cost consciousness items only
(e) any item.
Ans: e
78. The term 'value' in value engineering refers to
(a) total cost of the product
(b) selling price of the product
(c) utility of the product
(d) manufactured cost of the product
(e) depreciation value.
Ans: c
79. Value engineering aims at finding out the
(a) depreciation value of a product
(b) resale value of a product
(c) major function of the item and accomplishing the
same at least cost without change in quality
(d) break even point when machine re-quires
change
(e) selling price of an item.
Ans: c
80. In the perpetual inventory control, the material
is checked when it reaches its
(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) alarming value
(e) original value.
Ans: a
81. According to MAPI formula, the old machine
should be replaced by new one when
(a) CAM < DAM
(b) CAM > DAM
(c) CAM = DAM
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
(CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM =
Defender's Adverse minimum)
Ans: a
82. Merit Rating is the method of determining worth
of
(a) a job
(b) an individual employee
(c) a particular division in workshop
(d) machine
(e) overall quality.
Ans: b
83. Material handling and plant location is analysed
by
(a) Gnatt chart
(b) bin chart
(c) Emerson chart
(d) travel chart
(e) activity chart.
Ans: d
84. Works cost implies
(a) primary cost
(b) factory cost
(c) factory expenses
(d) primary cost + factory expenses
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
85. Motion study involves analysis of
(a) actions of operator
(b) layout of work place
(c) tooling and equipment
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
86. Standard time as compared to normal time is
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) there is no such correlation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
87. Pick up the incorrect statement about
advantages of work sampling
(a) permits a fine breakdown of activities and
delays
(b) simultaneous study of many operators may be
made by a single observer
(c) calculations are easier, method is economical
and less time consuming
(d) no time measuring devices are generally
needed
(e) as operators are not watched for long periods,
chances of obtaining misleading results are less.
Ans: a
88. In which of the following layouts, the lines need
to the balanced
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: b
89. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass
production
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: b
90. Which of the following layouts is suited to job
production
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: a
91. The employees provident fund act is applicable
to
(a) all industries
(b) all industries other than small and medium
industries
(c) volunteers
(d) the industries notified by Government
(e) all major industries.
Ans: d
92. The amount deducted from the salary of
workers towards employees provident fund is
(a) credited into reserves of company
(b) deposited in nationalised bank
(c) deposited in post office
(d) deposited in the account of worker with
employer or Reserve Bank of India
(e) deposited in the account of worker with
Provident Fund Commissioner.
Ans: e
93. The deductions for, employees provident fund
start
(a) immediately on joining the service
(b) after 60 days of joining the service
(c) after 100 days of joining the service
(d) after 240 days of joining the service
(e) after one year of joining the service.
Ans: d
94. Father of time study was
(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) H.L. Gantt
(c) F.B. Gilberfh
(d) R.M. Barnes
(e) H.B. Maynord.
Ans: a
95. Tick the odd man out
(a) Taylor
(b) Drucker
(c) McGregor
(d) Galileo
(e) Parkinson.
Ans: d
96. Current assets include
(a) manufacturing plant
(b) manufacturing plant and equipment
(c) inventories
(d) common stock held by the firm
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
97. The objective of time study is to determine the
time required to complete a job by
(a) fast worker
(b) average worker
(c) slow worker
(d) new entrant
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b
98. Job enrichment technique is applied to
(a) reduce labour monotony
(b) overcome boring and demotivating work
(c) make people happy
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
99. For ship vessel industry  the following layout is
best suited
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: c
100. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are
established
(a) by time study
(b) from previous production records
(c) from one's judgement
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
101. Routing is essential in the following type of
industry
(a) assembly industry
(b) process industry
(c) job order industry
(d) mass production industry
(e) steel industry.
Ans: a
102. An optimum project schedule implies
(a) optimum utilisation of men, machines and
materials
(b) lowest possible cost and shortest possible time
for project
(c) timely execution of project
(d) to produce best results under given constraints
(e) realistic execution time, minimum cost and
maximum profits.
Ans: b
103. Graphical method, simplex method, and
transportation method are concerned with
(a) break-even analysis
(b) value analysis
(c) linear programming
(d) queing theory
(e) tnaterial handling.
Ans: c
104. In crash program for a project
(a) both direct and indirect costs, increase
(b) indirect costs increase and direct costs
decrease
(c) direct costs increase and indirect costs
decrease
(d) cost is no criterion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
106. Which one of the following represents a group
incentive plan ?
(a) Scanlon Plan
(b) Rowan Plan
(c) Bedaux Plan
(d) Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
(e) Halsey Premium Plan.
Ans: a
107. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are
rewarded more
(a) past good workers
(b) past poor workers
(c) past average workers
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
108. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a
worker is
(a) paid as per efficiency
(b) ensured of minimum wages
(c) not paid any bonus till his efficiency 2 reaches
66 %
(d) never a loser
(e) induced to do more work.
Ans: b
109. 'Value' for value engineering and analysis
purposes is defined as
(a) purchase value
(b) saleable value
(c) depreciated value
(d) present worth
(e) function/cost.
Ans: e
110. Break-even analysis can be used for
(a) short run analysis
(b) long run analysis
(c) average of above two run analysis
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
111. CPM has following time estimate
(a) one time estimate
(b) two time estimate
(c) three time estimate
(d) four time estimate
(e) nil time estimate.
Ans: a
112. PERT has following time estimate
(a) one time estimate
(b) two time estimate
(c) three time estimate
(d) four time estimate
(e) nil time estimate.
Ans: c
113. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive
plan), the amount of the profit which an .employee
receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/
wages, is based on :
(a) a standard rating system
(b) a merit rating system
(c) a job evaluation system
(d) his individual performance
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b
114. Which of the following incentive plansrensures
a part of the swing to the worker and rest to the
employer
(a) Emerson efficiency plan
(b) Taylor plan
(c) Halsey premium plan
(d) Piece rate system
(e) Gilberth plan.
Ans: c
115. Which of the following is not wage incentive
plan
(a) differential piece rate system
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Emerson plan
(d) Taylor plan
(e) Halsey plan.
Ans: d
117. Which of the following plans motivates
supervisors by paying a premium on time saved by
workers
(a) Halsey plan
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Haynes plan
(d) Emerson's plan
(e) Taylor's plan.
Ans: c
118. The time required to complete a task is
established and a bonus is paid to the worker for
every hour he saves from the established time
required. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a) Rowan Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Taylor Differential Piece rate system
(d) Halsey Premium plan
(e) Day work plan.
Ans: d
119. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan
is that
(a) a differential piece rate system should exist
(b) minimum wages should be guaranteed
(c) provide incentive to group efficiency
performance
(d) all standards should be based on optimum
standards of production
(e) all standards should be based on time studies.
Ans: e
120. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker
receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid
till his efficiency reaches
(a) 50%
(b) 661%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%.
Ans: b
121. According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A =
actual time and S = standard time, then wages will
be
(a) HA
(b) HA + (S~A) HA
(c) HA + ^^-H
(d) HA + ^^-H
(e) HA + ^^-HA.
Ans: b
122. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then
according to Rowan plan, his maximum daily
earnings can be
(a) 2 HA
(b) 1.33 HA
(c) 1.5 HA
(d) 1.15 HA
(e) 2.5 HA.
Ans: a
123. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is
given to
(a) those items which consume money
(b) those items which are not readily available
(c) thosex items which are in more demand
(d) those items which consume more money
(e) proper quality assurance program-mes.
Ans: d
124. Which one of the following represents a group
incentive plan ?
(a) Halsey Premium Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan
(c) Lincoln Plan
(d) Rowan Plan
(e) Taylor Plan.
Ans: c
125. The mathematical technique for finding the best
use of limited resources in an optimum manner is
known as
(a) operation research
(b) linear programming
(c) network analysis
(d) queuing theory
(e) break-even analysis.
Ans: b
126. In order that linear programming techniques
provide valid results
(a) relations between factors must be linear
(positive)
(b) relations between factors must be linear
(negative)
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) only one factor should change at a time, others
remaining constant
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
127. The linear programming techniques can be
applied successfully to industries like
(a) iron and steel
(b) food processing
(c) oil and chemical
(d) banking
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
128. The simplex method is the basic method for
(a) value analysis
(b) operation research
(c) linear programming
(d) model analysis
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
129. The two-bin system is concerned with
(a) ordering procedure
(b) forecasting sales
(c) production planning
(d) despatching and expediting
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
130. The time required to complete a job is
established and a bonus is paid to the worker based
on the exact % of time saved. This type of incentive
plan is known as
(a) Dry work Plan
(b) Halsey Premium Plan
(c) Taylor Plan
(d) Bedaux Plan
(e) Rowan Plan.
Ans: e
131. Replacement studies are made on the fol-
lowing basis:
(a) annual cost method
(b) rate of return method
(c) total life average method
(d) present worth method
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: e
132. String diagram is used
(a) for checking the relative values of various
layouts
(b) when a group of workers are working at a place
(c) where processes require the operator to be
moved from one place to another
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
133. Which of the following depreciation system
ensures that the interest be charged on the cost of
machine asset every year on the book value, but
the rate of depreciation every year remains
constant
(a) sinking fund method
(b) straight line method
(c) A-B-C charging method
(d) annuity charging method
(e) diminishing balance method.
Ans: d
134. Bin card is used in
(a) administrative wing
(b) workshop
(c) foundary shop
(d) stores
(e) assembly shop.
Ans: d
135. Slack represents the difference between the
(a) latest allowable time and the normal expected
time
(b) latest allowable time and the earliest expected
time
(c) proposed allowable time and the ear-liest
expected time
(d) normal allowable time and the latest expected
time
(e) project initiation tune and actual starting time.
Ans: b
136. PERT and CPM are
(a) techniques to determine project status
(b) decision making techniques
(c) charts which increase aesthetic ap-pearance of
rooms
(d) aids to determine cost implications of project
(e) aids to the decision maker.
Ans: e
137. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is
that in the former case
(a) activities and events are clearly shown
(b) early start and late finish of an ac¬tivity are
clearly marked
(c) activity times are clear
(d) critical path can be easily determined
(e) inter-relationship among activities is clearly
shown.
Ans: e
138. CPM is the
(a) time oriented technique
(b) event oriented technique
(c) activity oriented technique
(d) target oriented technique
(e) work oriented technique.
Ans: c
139. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems)
include
(a) MTM (method time measurement)
(b) WFS (work factor systems)
(c) BNTS (basic motion time study)
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the abbvev
Ans: d
140. Work study comprises following main
techniques
(a) method study and work measurement
(b) method study and time study
(c) time study and work measurement
(d) method study and job evaluation
(e) value analysis and work measurement.
Ans: a
141. Which of the following equations is not in
conformity with others
(a) organisation performance x motivation = profits
(b) knowledge x skill = ability
(c) ability x motivation = performance
(d) attitude x situation = motivation
(e) performance x resources = organisation
performance.
Ans: a
142. PERT is the
(a) time oriented technique
(b) event oriented technique
(c) activity oriented technique
(d) target oriented technique
(e) work oriented technique.
Ans: b
143. The basic difference between PERT and CPM
is that
(a) PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
(b) critical path is determined in PERT only
(c) costs are considered on CPM only and not in
PERT
(d) guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated
times in CPM
(e) PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.
Ans: d
145. Queing theory is used for
(a) inventory problems
(b) traffic congestion studies
(c) job-shop scheduling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
146. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting
situation can be studied and analysed
mathematically if
(a) complete details'of items in, waiting line are
known
(b) arrival and waiting times are known and can be
grouped to form a waiting line model
(c) all variables and constants are known and form
a linear equation
(d) the laws governing arrivals, service times, and
the order in which the arriving units are taken into
source are known
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
147. Queing theory is associated with
(a) sales
(b) inspection time
(c) waiting time
(d) production time
(e) inventory.
Ans: c
148. The reasons which are basically responsible
for the formation of a queue should be that
(a) the average service rate HHess than the
average arrival rate
(b) output rate is linearly proportional to input
(c) output rate is constant and the input varies in a
random manner
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
149. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are
extremely useful in queuing problems
(a) that can't be analysed mathematically
(b) involving multistage queuing
(c) to verify mathematical results
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Theory of Machines - Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers

Theory of Machines -
Mechanical Engineering Multiple
choice Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following disciplines provides study
of inertia forces arising from the combined effect of
the mass and the motion of the parts
(a) theory of machines
(b) applied mechanics
(c) mechanisms
(d) kinetics
(e) kinematics.
Ans: d
2. Which of the following disciplines provides study
of relative motion between the parts of a machine
(a) theory of machines
(b) applied mechanics
(c) mechanisms
(d) kinetics
(e) kinematics.
Ans: e
3. Which of the following disciplines provides study
of the relative motion between the parts of a
machine and the forces acting on the parts
(a) theory of machines
(b) applied mechanics
(c) mechanisms
(d) kinetics
(e) kinematics.
Ans: a
4. The type of pair formed by two elements which
are so connected that one is constrained to turn or
revolve about a fixed axis of another element is
known as
(a) turning pair
(b) rolling pair
(c) sliding pair
(d) spherical pair
(e) lower pair,
Ans: a
5. Which of the following is a lower pair
(a) ball and socket i
(b) piston and cylinder
(c) cam and follower
(d) (a) and (b) above
(e) belt drive.
Ans: d
6. If two moving elements have surface contact in
motion, such pair is known as
(a) sliding pair
(b) rolling pair
(c) surface pair
(d) lower pair
(e) higher pair.
Ans: e
7. The example of lower pair is
(a) shaft revolving in a bearing
(b) straight line motion mechanisms
(c) automobile steering gear
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
8. Pulley in a belt drive acts as
(a) cylindrical pair
(b) turning pair
(c) rolling pair
(d) sliding pair
(e) surface pair.
Ans: c
9. The example of rolling pair is
(a) bolt and nut
(b) lead screw of a lathe
(c) ball and socket joint
(d) ball bearing and roller bearing
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
10. Any point on a link connecting double slider
crank chain will trace a
(a) straight line
(b) circle
(c) ellipse
(d) parabola
(e) hyperbola.
Ans: c
11. The purpose of a link is to
(a) transmit motion
(b) guide other links
(c) act as a support
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
12. A universal joint is an example of
(a) higher pair
(b) lower pair
(c) rolling pair
(d) sliding pair
(e) turning pair.
Ans: b
13. Rectilinear motion of piston is converted into
rotary by
(a) cross head
(b) slider crank
(c) connecting rod
(d) gudgeon pin
(e) four bar chain mechanism.
Ans: b
14. Pitch point on a cam is
(a) any point on pitch curve
(b) the point on cam pitch curve having the
maximum pressure angle
(c) any point on pitch circle
(d) the point on cam pitch curve having the
minimum pressure angle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
15. The values of velocity and acceleration of piston
at near dead center for a slider-crank mechanism
will be
(a) 0, and more than co2r
(b) 0, and less than coV
(c) 0, 0
(d) cor, 0
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
16. The example of spherical pair is
(a) bolt and nut
(b) lead screw of a lathe
(c) ball and socket joint
(d) ball bearing and roller bearing
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
17. Cross head and guides form a
(a) lower pair
(b) higher pair
(c) turning pair
(d) rolling pair
(e) sliding pair.
Ans: e
19. A circular bar moving in a round hole is an
example of
(a) incompletely constrained motion
(b) partially constrained motion
(c) completely constrained motion
(d) successfully constrained motion
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
20. If some links are connected such that motion
between them can take place in more than one
direction, it is called
(a) incompletely constrained motion
(b) partially constrained motion
(c) completely constrained motion
(d) successfully constrained motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
21. If there are L number of links in a mechanism
then number of possible inversions is equal to
(a) L + 1
(b) L - 1
(c) L
(d) L + 2
(e) L - 2.
Ans: c
22. Kinematic pairs are those which have two
elements that
(a) have line contact
(b) have surface contact
(c) permit relative motion
(d) are held together
(e) have dynamic forces.
Ans: c
24. The lower pair is a
(a) open pair
(b) closed pair
(c) sliding pair
(d) point contact pair
(e) does not exist.
Ans: b
25. Automobile steering gear is an example of
(a) higher pair
(b) sliding pair
(c) turning pair
(d) rotary pair
(e) lower pair.
Ans: e
26. In higher pair, the relative motion is
(a) purely turning
(b) purely sliding
(c) purely rotary
(d) purely surface contact
(e) combination of sliding and turning.
Ans: e
27. Which of the following has sliding motion
(a) crank
(b) connecting rod
(c) crank pin
(d) cross-head
(e) cross head guide.
Ans: d
28. The example of higher pair is
(a) belt, rope and chain drives
(b) gears, cams
(c) ball and roller bearings
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
29.  Which of the following mechanism is obtained
from lower pair
(a) gyroscope
(b) pantograph
(c) valve and valve gears
(d) generated straight line motions
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
30. Which of the following would constitute a link
(a) piston, piston rings and gudgeon pin
(b) piston, and piston rod
(c) piston rod and cross head
(d) piston, crank pin and crank shaft
(e) piston, piston-rod and cross head.
Ans: e
31. The Scott-Russell mechanism consists of
(a) sliding and turning pairs
(b) sliding and rotary pairs
(c) turning and rotary pairs
(d) sliding pairs only
(e) turning pairs only.
Ans: a
32. Davis steering gear consists of
(a) sliding pairs
(b) turning pairs
(c) rolling pairs
(d) higher pairs
(e) lower pairs.
Ans: a
33. Ackermann steering gear consists of
(a) sliding pairs
(b) turning pairs
(c) rolling pairs
(d) higher pairs
(e) lower pairs.
Ans: b
34. A completely constrained motion can be
transmitted with .
(a) 1 link with pin joints
(b) 2 links with pin joints
(c) 3 links with pin joints
(d) 4 links with pin joints
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
36. Oldham's coupling is the
(a) second inversion of double slider crank chain
(b) third inversion of double slider crank chain
(c) second inversion of single slider crank chain
(d) third inversion of slider crank chain
(e) fourth inversion of double slider crank chain.
Ans: b
37. Sense of tangential acceleration of a link
(a) is same as that of velocity
(b) is opposite to that of velocity
(c) could be either same or opposite to velocity
(d) is perpendicular to that of velocity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
38. A mechanism is an assemblage of
(a) two links
(b) three links
(c) four links or more than four links
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
39. The number of links in pantograph mechanism is
equal to
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6.
Ans: c
40. Elements of pairs held together mechanically is
known as
(a) closed pair
(b) open pair
(c) mechanical pair
(d) rolling pair
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
41. Shaft revolving in a bearing is the following type
of pair
(a) lower pair
(b) higher pair
(c) spherical pair,
(d) cylindrical pair
(e) bearing pair.
Ans: a
42. Rectangular bar in a rectangular hole is the
following type of pair
(a) completely constrained motion
(b) partially constrained motion
(c) incompletely constrained motion
(d) freely constrained motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
43. A foot step bearing and rotor of a vertical
turbine form examples of
(a) incompletely constrained motion
(b) partially constrained motion
(c) completely constrained motion
(d) successfully constrained motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
44. A slider crank chain consists of following
numbers of turning and sliding pairs
(a) I, 3
(b) 2, 2
(c) 3, 1
(d) 4, 0
(e) 0, 4.
Ans: c
46. Relationship between the number of links (L) and
number of pairs (P) is
(a) P = 2L-4
(b) P = 2L + 4
(c) P = 2L+2
(d) P = 2L-2
(e) P = L-4.
Ans: c
2.49. In problem 47, the chain is unconstrained
when
(a) L.H.S. = R.H.S.
(b) L.H.S. > R.H.S.
(c) L.H.S. < R.H.S.
(d) there is no such criterion for checking above
requirement
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
50. In problem 47, the chain is constrained when
(a) L.H.S. = R.H.S.
(b) L.H.S. < R.H.S.
(c) L.H.S. > R.H.S.
(d) there is no such criterion for checking above
requirement
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
51. The tendency of a body to resist change from
rest or motion is known as
(a) mass
(b) friction
(c) inertia
(d) resisting force
(e) resisting torque.
Ans: c
53. The type of coupling used to join two shafts
whose axes are neither in same straight line nor
parallel, but intersect is
(a) flexible coupling
(b) universal coupling
(c) chain coupling
(d) Oldham's coupling
(e) American coupling.
Ans: b
54. The advantage of the piston valve over D-slide
valve is that in the former case
(a) wear is less
(b) power absorbed is less
(c) both wear and power absorbed are low
(d) the pressure developed being high provides
tight sealing
(e) there is overall economy of initial cost,
maintenance and operation.
Ans: c
55. Flexible coupling is used because
(a) it is easy to disassemble
(b) it is easy to engage and disengage
(c) it transmits shocks gradually
(d) it prevents shock transmission and eliminates
stress reversals
(e) it increases shaft life.
Ans: d
56. With single Hooke's joint it is possible to connect
two shafts, the axes of which have an angular
misalignment up to
(a) 10°
(b) 20°
(c) 30°
(d) 40°
(e) 60°.
Ans: d
57. The Hooke's joint consists of :
(a) two forks
(b) one fork
(c) three forks
(d) four forks
(e) five forks.
Ans: a
58. The Klein's method of construction for
reciprocating engine mechanism
(a) is based on acceleration diagram
(b) is a simplified form of instantaneous center
method
(c) utilises a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of
mechanism for reciprocating engine
(d) enables determination of Corioli's component
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
59. It is required to connect two parallel shafts, the
distance between whose axes is small and variable.
The shafts are coupled by
(a) universal joint
(b) knuckle joint
(c) Oldham's coupling
(d) flexible coupling
(e) electromagnetic coupling.
Ans: c
60. The e.g. of a link in any mechanism would
experience
(a) no acceleration
(b) linear acceleration
(c) angular acceleration
(d) both angular and linear accelerations
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
61. In elliptical trammels
(a) all four pairs are turning
(b) three pairs turning and one pair sliding
(c) two pairs turning and two pairs sliding
(d) one pair turning and three pairs sliding
(e) all four pairs sliding.
Ans: c
62. In automobiles the power is transmitted from
gear box to differential through
(a) bevel gear
(b) universal joint
(c) Hooke's joint
(d) Knuckle joint
(e) Oldham's coupling.
Ans: c
63. The indicator using Watt mechanism is known
as
(a) Thompson indicator
(b) Richard indicator
(c) Simplex indicator
(d) Thomson indicator
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
64. The Ackermann steering mechanism is
preferred to the Davis type in automobiles because
(a) the former is mathematically accurate
(b) the former is having turning pair
(c) the former is most economical
(d) the former is most rigid
(e) none of thfr above.
Ans: b
12-65. Transmission of power from the engine to
the rear axle of an automobile is by means of
(a) compound gears
(b) worm and wheel method
(c) Hooke's joint
(d) crown gear
(e) bevel gears.
Ans: c
66. When a ship travels in a sea, which of the effect
is more dangerous
(a) steering
(b) pitching
(c) rolling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
67. In an ideal machine, the output as compared to
input is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) equal
(d) may be less or more depending on efficiency
(e) always less.
Ans: c
68. Governor is used in automobile to
(a) decrease the variation of speed
(b) to control
(c) to control SN
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
69. In gramophones for adjusting the speed of the
turntable, the following type of governor is
commonly employed
(a) Hartung governor
(b) Wilson Hartnell governor
(c) Pickering governor
(d) Inertia governor
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
70. For fluctuating loads, welsuited bearing is
(a) ball bearing
(b) roller bearing
(c) needle roller bearing
(d) thrust bearing
(e) sleeve bearing.
Ans: c
71. Crowning on pulleys helps
(a) in increasing velocity ratio
(b) in decreasing the slip of the belt
(c) for automatic adjustment of belt posi-tion so that
belt runs centrally
(d) increase belt and pulley life
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
72. Idler pulley is used
(a) for changing the direction of motion of the belt
(b) for applying tension
(c) for increasing -velocity ratio
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
73. In multi-V-belt transmission, if one of the belt is
broken, we have to change the
(a) broken belt
(b) broken belt and its adjacent belts
(c) all the belts
(d) there is no need of changing any one as
remaining belts can take care of transmission of
load
(e) all the weak belts.
Ans: c
74. The moment on the pulley which produces
rotation is called
(a) inertia
(b) momentum
(c) moment of momentum
(d) work
(e) torque.
Ans: e
75. Creep in belt drive is due to
(a) material of the pulley
(b) material of the belt
(c) larger size of the driver pulley
(d) uneven extensions and contractions due to
varying tension
(e) expansion of belt.
Ans: d
76. TJie horse power transmitted by a belt is
dependent upon
(a) tension on tight side of belt
(b) tension on slack side of belt
(c) radius of pulley
(d) speed of pulley
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
77. The locus of a point on a thread unwound from a
cylinder will be
(a) a straight line
(b) a circle
(c) involute
(d) cycloidal
(e) helix.
Ans: c
78. To transmit power from one rotating shaft to
another whose axes are neither parallel nor
intersecting, use
(a) spur gear
(b) spiral gear
(c) bevel gear
(d) worm gear
(e) crown gear.
Ans: d
79. For S.H.M. cam, the acceleration of the follower
at the ends of the stroke and aimidstroke
respectively, is
(a) maximum and zero
(b) zero and maximum
(c) minimum and maximum
(d) zero and minimum
(e) maximum and minimum.
Ans: a
80. Throw of a cam is the maximum distance of the
follower from
(a) base circle
(b) pitch circle
(c) root circle
(d) prime circle
(e) inner circle.
Ans: a
81. To obviate axial thrust, following gear drive is
used
(a) double helical gears having opposite teeth
(b) double helical gears having identical teeth
(c) single helical gear in which one of the teeth of
helix angle a is more
(d) mutter gears
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
82. Which of the following is false statement in
respect of differences between machine and
structure
(a) Machines transmit mechanical work, whereas
structures transmit forces
(b) In machines, relative motion exists be-tween its
members, whereas same does hot exist in case of
structures
(c) Machines modify movement and work, whereas
structures modify forces
(d) Efficiency of machines as well as structures is
below 100%
(e) Machines are run by electric motors, but
structures are not.
Ans: d
83. If D1 and D2 be the diameters of driver and
driven pulleys, then belt speed is proportional to
(a) D1/D2
(b) D2/D1
(C) D1-D2.
(d) D1
(e) D1+D2.
Ans: d
84. Typewriter constitutes
(a) machine
(b) structure
(c) mechanism
(d) inversion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
85. Lower pairs are those which have
(a) point or line contact between the two elements
when in motion
(b) surface contact between the two elements when
in motion
(c) elements of pairs not -held together
mechanically
(d) two elements that permit relative motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
86. A point on a link connecting double slider crank
chain traces a
(a) straight line
(b) circle
(c) parabola
(d) hyperbola
(e) ellipse.
Ans: e
87. A pantograph is a mechanism with
(a) lower pairs
(b) higher pairs
(c) rolling pairs
(d) turning pairs
(e) spherical pairs.
Ans: a
88. Kinematic pairs are those which have
(a) point or line contact between the two elements
when in motion
(b) surface contact between the two ele-ments
when in motion
(c) elements of pairs not held together mechanically
(d) two elements that permit relative mo-tion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
89. If the opposite links of a four bar linkage are
equal, the links will always form a
(a) triangle
(b) rectangle
(c) parallelogram
(d) pentagon
(e) trapezoid.
Ans: c
90. Higher pairs are those which have
(a) point or line contact between the two elements
when in motion
(b) surface contact between the two ele-ments
when in motion
(c) elements of pairs not held together mechanically
(d) two elements that permit relative motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
91. A cam mechanism imparts following motion
(a) rotating
(b) oscillating
(c) reciprocating
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
92. A cam with a roller follower would con stitute
following type of pair
(a) lower pair
(b) higher pair
(c) open pair
(d) close pair
(e) cam pair.
Ans: b
93. The approximate straight line mechanism is a
(a) four bar linkage
(b) 6 bar linkage
(c) 8 bar linkage
(d) 3 bar linkage
(e) 5 bar linkage.
Ans: a
94. "Open pairs are those which have
(a) point or line contact between the two elements
when in motion
(b) surface contact between the two ele-ments
when in motion
(c) elements of pairs not held together mechanically
(d) two elements that permit relative motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
95. Peaucellier mechanism has
(a) eight links
(b) six links
(c) four links
(d) twelve links
(e) five links.
Ans: a
96. Hart mechanism has
(a) eight links
(b) six links
(c) four links
(d) twelve links
(e) five links.
Ans: b
97. A chain comprises of 5 links having 5 joints. Is it
kinematic chain ?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) it is a marginal case
(d) data are insufficient to determine it
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
99. The main disadvantage of the sliding pair is that
it is
(a) bulky
(b) wears rapidly
(c) difficult to manufacture
(d) (a) and (b) above
(e) (a) and (c) above.
Ans: d
100. For a kinematic chain to be considered as
mechanism
(a) two links should be fixed
(b) one link should be fixed
(c) none of the links should be fixed
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
101. An eccentric sheave pivoted at one point
rotates and transmits oscillatory motion to a link
whose one end is pivoted and other end is
connected to it. This mechanism has
(a) 2 links
(b) 3 links
(c) 4 links
(d) 5 links
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
102. Whitworth quick return mechanism is obtained
by inversion of
(a) slider crank mechanism
(b) kinematic chain
(c) five link mechanism
(d) roller cam mechanism
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
103. In its simplest form, a cam mechanism
consists of following number of links
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) none.
Ans: c
104. Which of the following mechanisms produces
mathematically an exact straight line motion
(a) Grasshopper mechanism
(b) Watt mechanism
(c) Peaucellier's mechanism
(d) Tchabichiff mechanism
(e) Ackermann mechanism.
Ans: c
105. In a mechanism, usually one link is fixed.
If the fixed link is changed in a kinematic chain,
then relative motion of other links
(a) will remain same
(b) will change
(c) could change or remain unaltered depending oh
which link is fixed
(d) will not occur
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
106. A kinematic chain requires at least
(a) 2 links and 3 turning pairs
(b) 3 links and 4 turning pairs
(c) 4 links and 4 turning pairs
(d) 5 links and 4 turning pairs
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
107. In a darg link quick return mechanism, the
shortest link is always fixed. The sum of the
shortest and longest link is
(a) equal to sum of other two
(b) greater than sum of other two
(c) less than sum of other two
(d) there is no such relationship
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
108. The following is the inversion of slider crank
chain mechanism
(a) Whitworth quick return mechanism
(b) hand pump
(c) oscillating cylinder engine
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
109. Kinematic pairs are those which have
(a) two elements held together mechani-cally
(b) two elements having relative motion
(c) two elements having Coroili's com-ponent
(d) minimum of two instantaneous centres
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b
110 A typewriter mechanism has 7 number of
binary joints, six links and none of higher pairs. The
mechanism is
(a) kinematically sound
(b) not sound
(c) soundness would depend upon which link is kept
fixed
(d) data is not sufficient to determine same
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
111. In a four-bar chain it is required to give an
oscillatory motion to the follower for a continuous
rotation of the crank. For the lengths of 50 mm of
crank and 70 mm of the follower, determine
theoretical maximum length of coupler. The distance
between fixed pivots of crank and followers is
(a) 95 mm
(b) slightly less than 95 mm
(c) slightly more than 95 mm
(d) 45 mm
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
112. In above example, the minimum length of the
coupler will be
(a) 45 mm
(b) slightly less than 45 mm
(c) slightly more than 45 mm
(d) 95 mm
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
113. In S.H.M., acceleration is proportional to
(a) velocity
(b) displacement
(c) rate of change of velocity
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
114. For simple harmonic motion of the of follower,
a cosine curve represents
(a) displacement diagram
(b) velocity diagram
(c) acceleration diagram
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
115. In S.H.M., the velocity vector w.r.t.
displacement vector
(a) leads by 90°
(b) lags by 90°
(c) leads by 180°
(d) are in phase
(e) could be anywhere.
Ans: a
116. A body having moment of inertia o:m2 is
rotating at 210 RPM and r with another body at rest
having I
40 kg m2. The resultant speed after ing will be
(a) 90 RPM
(b) 100 RPM
(c) 80 RPM
(d) data are insufficient
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
117. Inertia force acts
(a) perpendicular to the accel< force
(b) along the direction of accel* force
(c) opposite to the direction of ace ing force
(d) in any direction w.r.t. accel* force depending on
the magnit two
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
118. The frequency of oscillation at compared to
earth will be
(a) 6 times more
(b) 6 times less
(c) 2.44 times more
(d) 2.44 times,less
(e) 36 times less.
Ans: d
119. Polar moment of inertia (IP) of ac disc is to ht
determined by suspen by a wire and noting the
frequei
oscillations (/)
(a) Ipocf
(b) Ipocf
(C) Ip oc j
(d) Ipoc-
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
120. If the radius of gyration of a compound
pendulum about an axis through e.g. is more, then
its frequency of oscillation will be
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) data are insufficient to determine same
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
121. The Bifilar suspension method is used to
determine
(a) natural frequency of vibration
(b) position of balancing weights
(c) moment of inertia
(d) centripetal acceleration'
(e) angular acceleration of a body.
Ans: c
122. Which is the false statement about the
properties of instantaneous centre
(a) at the instantaneous center of rotation, one rigid
link rotates instantaneously relative to another for
the configuration of mechanism considered
(b) the two rigid links have no linear velocities
relative to each other at the instantaneous centre
(c) the two rigid links which have no linear velocity
relative to each other at this center have the same
linear velocity to the third rigid link
(d) the double centre can be denoted either by 02\
or Ol2, but proper selection should be made
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
123. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a
four bar mechanism lies on
(a) right side pivot of this link
(b) lift side pivot of this link
(c) a point obtained by intersection on extending
adjoining links
(d) can't occur
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
124. The number of links and instantaneous centers
in a reciprocating engine mechanism are
(a) 4, 4
(b) 4, 5
(c) 5, 4
(d) 6, 4
(e) 4, 6.
Ans: e
125. According to Kennedy's theorem, if three
bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous
centers lie on
(a) a triangle
(b) a point
(c) two lines
(d) a straight line
(e) a curve.
Ans: d
126. In a rigid link OA, velocity of A w.r.t. will be
(a) parallel to OA
(b) perpendicular to OA
(c) at 45° to OA
(d) along AO
(e) along OA.
Ans: b
127. Two systems shall be dynamically equivalent
when
(a) the mass of two are same
(b) e.g. of two coincides
(c) M.I. of two about an axis through e.g. is equal
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
128. The velocity of any point in mechanism relative
to any other point on the mechanism on velocity
polygon is represented by the line
(a) joining the corresponding points
(b) perpendicular to line as per (a)
(c) not possible to determine with these data
(d) at 45° to line as per (a)
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
129. The absolute acceleration of any point P in a
link about center of rotation 0 is
(a) along PO
(b) perpendicular to PO
(c) at 45° to PO
(d) along OP
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
130. Angular acceleration of a link can be
determined by dividing the
(a) centripetal component of acceleration with
length of link
(b) tangential component of acceleration with length
of link
(c) resultant acceleration with length of link
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
131. Corioli's component of acceleration exists
whenever a point moves along a path that has
(a) linear displacement
(b) rotational motion
(c) tangential acceleration
(d) centripetal acceleration
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
132. The direction of Corioli's component of
acceleration is the direction
(a) of relative velocity vector for the two coincident
points rotated by 90° in the direction of the angular
velocity of the rotation of the link
(b) along the centripetal acceleration
(c) along tangential acceleration
(d) along perpendicular to angular velocity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
133. In a shaper mechanism, the Corioli's
component of acceleration will
(a) not exist
(b) exist
(c) depend on position of crank
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
134. The magnitude of tangential acceleration is
equal to
(a) velocity2 x crank radius
(b) velocityvcrankradius
(c) (velocity/crankradius)
(d) velocity x crank radius2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
135. Tangential acceleration direction is
(a) along the angular velocity
(b) opposite to angular velocity
(c) may be any one of these
(d) perpendicular to angular velocity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
136. Corioli's component is encountered in
(a) quick return mechanism of shaper
(b) four bar chain mechanism
(c) slider crank mechanism
(d) (a) and (c) above
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
137. Klein's construction gives a graphica
construction for
(a) slider-crank mechanism
(b) velocity polygon
(c) acceleration polygon
(d) four bar chain mechanism
(e) angular acceleration.
Ans: c
138. Klein's construction can be used to determine
acceleration of various parts when the crank is at
(a) inner dead centre
(b) outer dead centre
(c) right angles to the link of the stroke
(d) at 45° to the line of the stroke
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
139. The number of  centers in a crank driven slider
crank mechanism are
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
(e) may be any number depending upon position of
mechanism.
Ans: b
140. Corioli's component acts
(a) perpendicular to sliding surfaces
(b) along sliding surfaces
(c) somewhere in between above two
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
141. The sense of Corioli's component is such that
it
(a) leads the sliding velocity vector by 90°
(b) lags the sliding velocity vector by 90°
(c) is along the sliding velocity vector
(d) leads the sliding velocity vector by 180°
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
142. Klein's construction can be used when
(a) crank has a uniform angular velocity
(b) crank has non-uniform velocity
(c) crank has uniform angular acceleration
(d) crank has uniform angular velocity and angular
acceleration
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a
143. Klein's construction is useful to determine
(a) velocity of various parts
(b) acceleration of various parts
(c) displacement of various parts
(d) angular acceleration of various parts
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b
144. A circle passing through the pitch point with its
center at the center of cam axis is known as
(a) pitch circle
(b) base circle
(c) prime circle
(d) outer circle
(e) cam circle.
Ans: c
145. The pressure angle of a cam depends upon
(a) offset between centre lines of cam and follower
(b) lift of follower
(c) angle of ascent
(d) sum of radii of base circle and roller follower
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
146. Cam size depends upon
(a) base circle
(b) pitch circle
(c) prime circle
(d) outer circle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
147. Cylindrical cams can be classified as
(a) circular
(b) tangent
(c) reciprocating
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
148. The maximum value of the pressure angle in
case of cam is kept as
(a) 10°
(b) 14°
(c) 20°
(d) 30°
(e) 25°.
Ans: d
149. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a
smaller base circle will give
(a) a small value of pressure angle
(b) a large value of pressure angle
(c) there is no such relation with pressure angle
(d) something else
(e) none of the above is true.
Ans: b
150. Cam angle is defined as the angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its initial
position
(b) of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement
of the follower
(c) through which, the cam rotates during the period
in which the follower remains in the highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower
begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the can from beginning of i ascent to
the termination of descent.
Ans: b
151. Angle of descent of cam is defined as the angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its initial
position
(b) of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement
of the follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the period
in which the follower remains in the highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower
begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to
the termination of descent.
Ans: a
152. Angle of action of cam is defined as the angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its initial
position
(b) of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement
of the follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the period
in which the follower remains in the highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower
begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to
the termination of descent.
Ans: e
153. Angle of dwell of cam is defined as the angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its initial
position
(b) of rotation of the cam for definite dis¬placement
of the follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the period
in which the follower remains in the highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower
begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the cam from a beginning of ascent to
the termination of descent.
Ans: c
154. Angle of ascent of cam is defined as the angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its initial
position
(b) of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement
of the follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the period
in which the follower remains in highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower
begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the cam from beginning oi ascent to
the termination of descent.
Ans: d

Strength of Materials Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Strength of Materials
Multiple Choice Questions and
Answers

1. The unit of force in S.I. units is
(a) kilogram
(b) newton
(c) watt
(d) dyne
(e) joule.
Ans: b
2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is
(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) kilogram meter
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: e
3. The unit of power in S.I. units is
(a) newton meter
(b) watt
(c) joule
(d) kilogram meter/sec.
(e) pascal per sec.
Ans: b
4. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of
action meet in
(a) one point
(b) two points
(c) plane
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different planes.
Ans: a
5. Forces are called coplanar when all of them
acting on body lie in
(a) one point
(b) one plane
(c) different planes
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different points.
Ans: b
6. A force acting on a body may
(a) introduce internal stresses
(b) balance the other forces acting on it
(c) retard its motion
(d) change its motion
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
7. Which is the correct statement about law of
polygon of forces ?
(a) if any number of forces acting at a point can be
represented by the sides
of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in
equilibrium
(b) if any number of forces acting at a point can be
represented in direction and magnitude by the sides
of a polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium
(c) if a polygon representing forces acting at a point
is closed then forces are in equilibrium
(d) if any number of forces acting at a point can be
represented in direction and magnitude by the sides
of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in
equilibrium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
8. Effect of a force on a body depends upon
(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) position or line of action
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
9. If a number of forces act simultaneously on
a particle, it is possible
(a) not a replace them by a single force
(b) to replace them by a single force
(c) to replace them by a single force through C.G.
(d) to replace them by a couple
(e) to replace them by a couple and a force.
Ans: b
11. A force is completely defined when we specify
(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) point of application
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
12. If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an
angle 9°, their resultant will be
(a) P/2 cos 9/2
(b) IP sin 9/2
(c) 2P tan 9/2
(d) IP cos 9/2
(e) Psin 9/2.
Ans: d
13. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a
number of forces in a given direction is equal to the
resolved part of their resultant in the same
direction. This is as per the principle of
(a) forces
(b) independence of forces
(c) dependence of forces
(d) balance of force
(e) resolution of forces.
Ans: e
14. The resolved part of the resultant of two forces
inclined at an angle 9 in a given direction is equal to
(a) the algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the
forces in the given direction
(b) the sum of the resolved parts of the forces in
the given direction
(c) the difference of the forces multiplied by the
cosine of 9
(d) the sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of 9
(e) the sum of the forces multiplied by the tangent of
9.
Ans: a
15. Which of the following do not have identical
dimensions ?
(a) Momentum and impulse
(b) Torque and energy
(c) Torque and work
(d) Kinetic energy and potential energy
(e) Moment of a force and angular momentum.
Ans: e
16. Which of the following is not the unit of
distance ?
(a) angstrom
(b) light year
(c) micron
(d) millimeter
(e) milestone.
Ans: e
17. Which of the following is not the unit of power ?
(a) kW (kilowatt)
(b) hp (horse power)
(c) kcal/sec
(d) kg m/sec
(e) kcal/kg sec.
Ans: e
18. Which of the following is not the unit of work,
energy and heat ?
(a) kcal
(b) kg m
(c) kWhr
(d) hp
(e) hp hr.
Ans: d
19. Which of the following is not the unit of
pressure ?
(a) kg/cm
(b) ata
(c) atmosphere
(d) mm of wcl
(e) newton.
Ans: e
20. The weight of a body is due to
(a) centripetal force of earth
(b) gravitational pull exerted by the earth
(c) forces experienced by body in atmos-phere
(d) force of attraction experienced by par-ticles
(e) gravitational force of attraction towards the
centre of the earth.
Ans: e
21. The forces, which meet at one point, but their
lines of action do not lie in a plane, are called
(a) coplanar non-concurrent forces
(b) non-coplanar concurrent forces
(c) non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(d) intersecting forces
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
22. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is
applied
(a) coplanar force
(b) non-coplanar forces
(c) lever
(d) moment
(e) couple.
Ans: e
23. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity
(a) time
(b) mass
(c) volume
(d) density
(e) acceleration.
Ans: e
24. According to principle of transmissibility of
forces, the effect of a force upon a body is
(a) maximum when it acts at the center of gravity of
a body
(b) different at different points in its line of action
(c) the same at every point in its line of action
(d) minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
25. Which of the following is a vector quantity
(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) momentum
(d) angle
(e) speed.
Ans: c
26. The magnitude of two forces, which when acting
at right angle produce resultant force of VlOkg and
when acting at 60° produce resultant of Vl3 kg.
These forces are
(a) 2 and V6
(b) 3 and 1 kg
(c) V5andV5
(d) 2 and 5
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
27. A number of forces acting at a point will be in
equilibrium if
(a) their total sum is zero
(b) two resolved parts in two directions at right
angles are equal
(c) sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular
directions are both zero
(d) all of them are inclined equally
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
28. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in
opposite direction
(a) balance each other
(b) constitute a moment
(c) constitute a couple
(d) constitute a moment of couple
(e) constitute a resultant couple.
Ans: c
29. According to principle of moments
(a) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium,
then their algebraic sum is zero
(b) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium,
then the algebraic sum of their moments about any
point in their plane is zero
(c) the algebraic sum of the moments of any two
forces about any point is equal to moment of
theiwesultant about the same point
(d) positive and negative couples can be balanced
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
30. Which of the following is not a vector quantity
(a) weight
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) force
(e) moment.
Ans: a
31. According to law of triangle of forces
(a) three forces acting at a point will be in
equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be represented
by a triangle, each side being proportional to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a patticle are
represented in magnitude and direction by the sides
of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in
equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in
equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of
the angle between the other two
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
1033. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the
action of three forces, then
(a) these forces are equal
(b) the lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(c) the lines of action of these forces are parallel
(d) (b) and (c) above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
1036. D' Alembert's principle is used for
(a) reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent
statics problem
(b) determining stresses in the truss
(c) stability of floating bodies
(d) designing safe structures
(e) solving kinematic problems.
Ans: a
37. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a
vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(a) the floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(b) the floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(c) the floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(d) the floor and wall both are rough sur-faces
(e) will be in equilibrium under all condi-tions.
Ans: c
38. According to Lami's theorem
(a) three forces acting at a point will be in
equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be represented
by a triangle, each side being proportional to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a particle are
represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order,
they will be in equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in
equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of
the angle between the other two
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
39. Two coplanar couples having equal and op-
posite moments
(a) balance each other
(b) produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(c) are equivalent
(d) produce a moment of couple
(e) can not balance each other.
Ans: e
40. A framed structure is perfect if it contains
members equal to
(a) 2n-3
(b) n-l
(c) '2n-l
(d) n - 2
(e) 3n-2.
where n = number of joints in a frame
Ans: a
42. The product of either force of couple with the
arm of the couple is called
(a) resultant couple
(b) moment of the forces
(c) resulting couple
(d) moment of the couple
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
43. In detennining stresses in frames by methods of
sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an
imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut
more than
(a) two members with unknown forces of the frame
(b) three members with unknown forces of the
frame
(c) four members with unknown forces of the frame
(d) three members with known forces of the frame
(e) four members with two known forces.
Ans: b
44. The center of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at
(a) the center of heavy portion
(b) the bottom surface
(c) the mid point of its axis
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
45. Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis
at the height
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
46. Center of percussion is
(a) the point of C.G.
(b) the point of metacentre
(c) the point of application of the resultant of all the
forces tending to cause a body to rotate about a
certain axis
(d) point of suspension
(e) the point in a body about which it can rotate
horizontally and oscillate under the influence of
gravity.
Ans: c
47. Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on
the axis at a height of
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
48. The units of moment of inertia of an area are
(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) m3
(e) kg/m4.
Ans: b
49. The center of percussion of the homogeneous
rod of length L suspended at the top will be
(a) L/2
(b) L/3
(c) 3L/4
(d) 2L/3
(e) 3L/8.
Ans: d
50. The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the
point of
(a) concurrence of the medians
(b) intersection of its altitudes
(c) intersection of bisector of angles
(d) intersection of diagonals
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
51. The units of moment of inertia of mass are
(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) kg/m
(e) m2/kg.
Ans: a
52. The possible loading in various members of
framed structures are
(a) compression or tension
(b) buckling or shear
(c) shear or tension
(d) all of the above
(e) bending.
Ans: a
53. A heavy string attached at two ends at same
horizontal level and when central dip is very small
approaches the following curve
(a) catenary
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) circular arc.
Ans: b
54. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length.
The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20
meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg
find the dip in the middle of the span
(a) 2.5 cm
(b) 3.0 cm
(c) 4.0 cm
(d) 5.0 cm
(e) 2.0 cm.
Ans: c
55. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out
a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate.
Find the e.g. of the remainder from the center of
circular plate
(a) 0.5 cm
(b) 1.0 cm
(c) 1.5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm
(e) 0.25 cm.
Ans: a
58. Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following :
(a) The C.G. of a circle is at its center
(b) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its
medians
(c) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the inter-section of
its diagonals
(d) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2
from the center
(e) The C-G. of an ellipse is at its center.
Ans: d
59. The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of
radius r resting on a horizontal plane will be
(a) r/2
(b) 2r/3
(c) r/A
(d) 3r/2
(e) 3r/A.
Ans: d
62. In the equation of virtual work, following force is
neglected
(a) reaction of any smooth surface with which the
body is in contact
(b) reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls
on it without slipping
(c) reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space,
around which a body is con-strained to turn
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
63. If a suspended body is struck at the centre of
percussion, then the pressure on die axis passing
through the point of suspension will be
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) infinity
(e) same as the force applied.
Ans: c
65. The resultant of the following three couples 20
kg force, 0.5 m arm, $ ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m
arm, - ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, + ve
sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
(a) 20 kg, - ve sense
(b) 20 kg, + ve sense
(c) 10 kg, + ve sense
(d) 10 kg, - ve sense
(e) 45 kg, + ve sense.
Ans: a
68. Angle oT friction is the
(a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant
of normal reaction and the limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(c) the ratio of minimum friction force to the friction
force acting when the body is just about to move
(d) the ratio of minimum friction force to friction
force acting when the body is in motion
(e) ratio of static and dynamic friction.
Ans: a
69. The coefficient of friction depends on
(a) area of contact
(b) shape of surfaces
(c) strength of surfaces
(d) nature of surface
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
70. Least force required to draw a body up the
inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction
angle) applied in the direction
(a) along the plane
(b) horizontally
(c) vertically
(d) at an angle equal to the angle of friction to the
inclined plane
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d
71. The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
is known as
(a) coefficient of friction
(b) angle of friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) sliding friction
(e) friction resistance.
Ans: a
72. Which one of the following statements is not
correct
(a) the tangent of the angle of friction is equal to
coefficient of friction
(b) the angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(c) the tangent of the angle of repose is equal to
coefficient of friction
(d) the sine of the angle of repose is equal to
coefficient to friction
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
73. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and
leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction will
be
(a) towards the wall at its upper end
(b) away from the wall at its upper end
(c) upwards at its upper end
(d) downwards at its upper end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
74. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning
against a smooth vertical wall, the force of friction
will be
(a) downwards at its upper end
(b) upwards at its upper end
(c) perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(d) zero at its upper end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
76. Frictional force encountered after
commencement of motion is called
(a) post friction
(b) limiting friction
(c) kinematic friction
(d) frictional resistance
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: e
77. Coefficient of friction is the
(a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant
of normal reaction and the limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(c) the friction force acting when the body is just
about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body is in
motion
(e) tangent of angle of repose.
Ans: b
78. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for
dry surfaces. Friction force is
(a) proportional to normal load between the
surfaces
(b) dependent on the materials of contact surface
(c) proportional to velocity of sliding
(d) independent of the area of contact surfaces
(e) none of the above is wrong statement.
Ans: c
79. A body of weight W on inclined plane of a being
pulled up by a horizontal force P will be on the point
of motion up the plane when P is equal to
(a) W
(b) W sin (a + $)
(c) Wtan(a + <|))
(d) W\an(a-<t>)
(e) Wtana.
Ans: c
80. A particle moves along a straight line such that
distance (x) traversed in t seconds is given by x =
t2 (t - 4), the acceleration of the particle will be
given by the equation
(a) 3t2-lt
(b) 3t2+2t
(c) 6f-8
(d) 6f-4
(e) 6t2-8t.
Ans: c
81. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the
movement of a pedestrain, he has to hold his
umbrella
(a) more inclined when moving
(b) less inclined when moving
(c) more inclined when standing
(d) less inclined when standing
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
86. A projectile is fired at an angle 9 to the vertical.
Its horizontal range will be maximum when 9 is
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
(e) 90°.
Ans: c
88. Limiting force of friction is the
(a) tangent of angle between normal-reaction and
the resultant of normal reaction and limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(c) the friction force acting when the body is just
about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body is in
motion
(e) minimum force of friction.
Ans: c
89. Coulomb friction is the friction between
(a) bodies having relative motion
(b) two dry surfaces
(c) two lubricated surfaces
(d) solids and liquids
(e) electrically charged particles.
Ans: a
90. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction
is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less of more depending on nature of
surfaces and velocity
(e) has no correlation.
Ans: c
92. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to
(a) kinetic friction
(b) limiting friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) coefficient of friction
(e) friction force.
Ans: d
93. Kinetic friction is the
(a) tangent of angle between normal reac-tion and
the resultant of normal reac-tion and the limiting
friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(c) the friction force acting when the body is just
about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body is in
motion
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: d
95. The effort required to lift a load W on a screw
jack with helix angle a and angle of friction <j) is
equal to
(a) Wtan(a + <)>)
(b) Wtan(a-<)>)
(c) Wcos(a + <t>)
(d) Wsin(a + <(>)
(e) W (sin a + cos <j>).
Ans: a
96. A semi-circular disc rests on a horizontal
surface with its top flat surface horizontal and
circular portion touching down. The coefficient of
friction between semi-cricular disc and horizontal
surface is \i. This disc is to be pulled by a horizontal
force applied at one edge and it always remains
horizontal. When the disc is about to start moving,
its top horizontal force will
(a) remain horizontal
(b) slant up towards direction of pull
(c) slant down towards direction of pull
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
97. A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r,
having coefficient of friction -rr can rest upto height
of
(a) r/2
(b) r/A
(c) r/%
(d) 0.134 r
(e) 3r/8.
Ans: d
98. The algebraic sum of moments of the forces
forming couple about any point in their plane is
(a) equal to the moment of the couple
(b) constant
(c) both of above are correct
(d) both of above are wrong
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
99. A single force and a couple acting in the
same plane upon a rigid body
(a) balance each other
(b) cannot balance each other
(c) produce moment of a couple
(d) are equivalent
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
100. If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid
body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must either
(a) meet in a point
(b) be all parallel
(c) at least two of them must meet
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
101. The maximum frictional force which comes
into play when a body just begins to slide over
another surface is called
(a) limiting friction
(b) sliding friction
(c) rolling friction
(d) kinematic friction
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: a
102. The co-efficient of friction depends upon
(a) nature of surfaces
(b), area of contact
(c) shape of the surfaces
(d) ail of the above.
(e) (a) and (b) above.
Ans: a
104. The necessary condition for forces to be in
equilibrium is that these should be
(a) coplanar
(b) meet at one point ;
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) all be equal
(e) something else.
Ans: c
105. If three forces acting in different planes can be
represented by a triangle, these will be in
(a) non-equilibrium
(b) partial equilibrium
(c) full equilibrium
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
106. If n = number of members andy = number of
joints, then for a perfect frame, n =
(a) j-2
(b)2j-l
(c) 2/-3
(d)3/-2
(e) 2/ -4.
Ans: c
107. A body moves, from rest with a constant
acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered
in 5 sec is most nearly
(a) 38 m
(b) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(d) 124 m
(e) 240 m.
Ans: b
108. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000
rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is
nearly equal to
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 250
(e) 500.
Ans: b
109 Which of the following is the locus of a point
that moves in such a manner that its distance from
a fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line
multiplied by a constant greater than one
(a) ellipse
(b) hyperbola
(c) parabola
(d) circle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
111. Which of the following is not the unit of energy
(a) kg m
(b) kcal
(c) wattr
(d) watt hours
(e) kg m x (m/sec)2.
Ans: c
112. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180
gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then
which is correct statement about density of metal
(a) density of metal can't be determined
(b) metal is twice as dense as water
(c) metal will float in water
(d) metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
113. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the
central radius 3r
(a) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(b) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(c) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(d) at distance — from the plane base or
(e) at distance — from the plane base.
Ans: d
117. The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its
geometrical centre in the case of a
(a) right angled triangle
(b) equilateral triangle
(c) square
(d) circle
(e) rectangle.
Ans: a
119. The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height
h lies at the following distance from the base
(a) h/2
(b) J/3
(c) h/6
(d) h/4
(e) 3/i/5.
Ans: d
122. The M.I. of hollow circular section about a
central axis perpendicular to section as compared
to its M.I. about horizontal axis is
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one fourth.
Ans: b
126. Which of the following is the example of lever
of first order
(a) arm of man
(b) pair of scissors
(c) pair of clinical tongs
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
127. A pair of smith's tongs is an example of the
lever of
(a) zeioth order
(b) first order
(c) second order
(d) third order
(e) fourth order.
Ans: c
128. In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and
fulcrum F are oriented as follows
(a) W between P and F
(b) F between W and P
(c) P between W and F
(d) W, P and F all on one side
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
129. The angle which an inclined plane makes with
the horizontal when a body placed on it is about to
move down is known as angle of
(a) friction
(b) limiting friction
(c) repose
(d) kinematic friction
(e) static friction.
Ans: c
130. In actual machines
(a) mechanical advantage is greater than velocity
ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity
ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(d) mechanical advantage is unity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
131. In ideal machines
(a) mechanical advantage is greater than velocity
ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity
ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(d) mechanical advantage is unity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
132. A cable with a uniformly distributed load per
horizontal metre run will take the following shape
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) part of a circle.
Ans: b